Answer:
a. in the general ledger
Explanation:
When preparing the retained earnings statement, the beginning retained earnings balance can always be found in the general ledger.
Answer: a) unfavorable direct labor price (rate) variance of $2,085.
Explanation:
The purpose of calculating variance is to see if a company is being efficient in it's production of goods and services or in it's general affairs. The variance is calculated by subtracting the actual amount that was used to do something from it's budgeted amount.
If the actual amount is higher then the Variance is said to be Unfavourable. The reverse holds true.
Calculating the Direct Labor price (rate) Variance will give us,
Direct Labor Price (rate) Variance = (Actual Price - Standard price)*Actual Hour
NB - Figures are given for 30 minutes so need to be converted.
Direct Labor Price (rate) Variance = (111,285/9,100 *2 - 115,200/9,600 * 2 ) * 9100/2
= $2,085
Actual Price (rate) variance was higher than Standard Price (rate) variance which led to an Unfavourable balance of $2,085
Answer:
C. The price of a hamburger was $3.80 rather than $5.50 in 2010, with other prices in the table remaining fixed.
Explanation:
The given table shows the inflation rates and price movement over the years. The hamburger had inflation effect and its price increased by almost $1. The price change will create burden on the consumer and they will have to pay for inflation differential.
Answer:
e. Project X has both a higher present value and a higher future value than Project Y.
Explanation:
The project X cash flows are higher in initial years than of project Y. The present value of project X cash flows will be greater than project Y. The time value of money of project X will be greater than Project Y.
The future value of Project X will also be higher than project Y because it has higher cash flows in earlier years. When future value will be calculated the project X will give the higher Future value than project Y.
Answer:
4.62 years
8.02%
Explanation:
The payback period is the number of years it would take the investment to recoup itself.
Payback=initial capital outlay/annual cash flow
initial capital outlay is the cost of the new machine plus installation cost minus the salvage value of the old machine.
initial capital outlay=$40,070+$1,200-$2,000=$ 39,270.00
Annual cash flow is the reduction in operating costs of $8,500 per year
payback =$ 39,270.00/$8,500.00=4.62 years
The internal rate of return is computed in the attached