-8(6+X) + 4(2x + 7) = 0

Sophia has an ear infection. The doctor prescribes a course of antibiotics. Sophia is told to take 500 mg doses of the antibioti

julsineya [31]

Answer:

see below

Step-by-step explanation:

Dosage= 500 mg

Frequency= twice a day (every 12 hours)

Duration= 10 days

Number of dosage= 10*2= 20

residual drug amount after each dosage= 4.5%

We can build an equation to calculate residual drug amount:

d= 500*(4.5/100)*t= 22.5t, where d- is residual drug, t is number of dosage

After first dose residual drug amount is:

d= 500*0.045= 22.5 mg

After second dose:

d= 22.5*2= 45 mg

As per the equation, the higher the t, the greater the residual drug amount in the body.

Maximum residual drug will be in the body:

d= 20*22.5= 450 mg at the end of 10 days

Maximum drug will be in the body right after the last dose, when the amount will be:

500+19*22.5= 927.5 mg

5 0

3 years ago

#15 i

MA_775_DIABLO [31]

The inequality which represents the missing dimension x is x≥1.6 or x≥8 / 5.

Given that the area is greater than or equal to 8 square feet and image is attached below.

We want to find the missing inequality x in the form of inequality.

The figure is assumed to be a right triangle with Root = x and perpendicular = 10ft.

As we know the area of a triangle is half the product of the base and the height.

First of all, we will find the area of the triangle by substituting the given values we get

Area=(1/2)×Base×height

Area=(1/2)×x×10

Area=5x ......(1)

Assume that this area is greater than or equal to 8 square feet.

That means Area≥8ft² ......(2)

Now we will balance equation (1) and equation (2), we get

5x≥8ft²

Furthermore, they we will divide both sides by 5 we get

(5x)/5≥8/5

x≥8/5

x≥1.6

Therefore, the inequality represents the missing size x when the area is larger or equal to 8 square feet is x ≥1.6ft².

Learn more about the dimension from here brainly.com/question/13271352

#SPJ9

4 0

2 years ago

Suppose that W1 is a random variable with mean μ and variance σ21 and W2 is a random variable with mean μ and variance σ2. From

vivado [14]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The concept of variance in random variable is applied in solving for the value of c for the estimator cW1 + (1 − c)W2 to be most efficient. Appropriate differentiation of the estimator with respect to c will give the value of c when the result is at minimum.

The detailed analysis and step by step approach is as shown in the attachment.

7 0

3 years ago

Consider a set of one-dimensional points: 6, 12, 18, 24, 30, 42, 48.

Vinvika [58]

Answer:

1) With initial centroids 10-40, final clusters are

first cluster (6,12,18,24,30)

second cluster (42,48)

And the Sum of Squared Errors (SSE) for the clustering result is 378

2) With initial centroids 10-20, final clusters are

first cluster (6,12,18,24)

second cluster (30,42,48)

And the Sum of Squared Errors (SSE) for the clustering result is 348

Step-by-step explanation:

K-means works as follows

the points will be clustered according to their distance to the centroids.
Then centroids are updated as the cluster means.
This process continues until clusters doesn't change anymore

1) initial centroids 10-40

first cluster (6,12,18,24) mean:15

second cluster (30,42,48) mean:40

new centroids 15-40

first cluster (6,12,18,24,30) mean:18

second cluster (42,48) mean:45

final centroids 18-45

first cluster (6,12,18,24,30) mean:18

second cluster (42,48) mean:45

Sum of Squared errors = $(18-6)^{2}$ + $(18-12)^{2}$ + $(18-18)^{2}$ + $(18-24)^{2}$ + $(18-30)^{2}$ + $(45-42)^{2}$ + $(45-48)^{2}$ =378

2)initial centroids 10-20

first cluster (6,12) mean:9

second cluster (18,24,30,42,48) mean:32.4

new centroids 9-32.4

first cluster (6,12,18) mean:12

second cluster (24,30,42,48) mean:36

new centroids 12-36

first cluster (6,12,18,24) mean:15

second cluster (30,42,48) mean:40

final centroids 15-40

first cluster (6,12,18,24) mean:15

second cluster (30,42,48) mean:40

Sum of Squared errors = $(15-6)^{2}$ + $(15-12)^{2}$ + $(15-18)^{2}$ + $(15-24)^{2}$ + $(40-30)^{2}$ + $(40-42)^{2}$ + $(40-48)^{2}$ =348

6 0

3 years ago

A new furnace for your small factory will cost $29,000 and a year to install, will require ongoing maintenance expenditures of $

Neporo4naja [7]

Answer:

Net present value is $61,058.

Step-by-step explanation:

Net present value is the difference between present value of cash inflows and the present value cash outflows over the period of time. NPV method is used in capital budgeting to analyze profitability of the project.

Less: initial cost is $29,000

Add: Year 1: Cost saving due to new furnace is $5,600 (2,800 oil gallons * $ 2 per gallon)

Year 2: Cost saving due to new furnace is $7,000 (2,800 oil gallons * $ 2.50 per gallon)

Year 3- 20: Cost saving due to new furnace is $8,400 (2,800 oil gallons * $ 3 per gallon)

Less : Maintenance expenditure is $1,200

The furnace will benefit for 20 years and the price per gallon will increase by $0.50 year.

The annuity factor is applied at discount factor of 6% and then present value of each cash inflow and outflow is calculated. The net present value is $61,058.

8 0

3 years ago