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zhuklara [117]
3 years ago
15

If g(3) = 5 and g(-1) = 5, explain why g(x) does not have an inverse.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Alenkinab [10]3 years ago
4 0

g(x) cannot have an inverse because it gives the same output value for two individual input values.

In this case, g(x) is 5 when x is both 3 and -1. Hence, g(x) does not have an inverse.

Let me know if you have any questions, thanks!

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Please help me <33333
mariarad [96]
Comment
You have to begin by declaring what g(f(x)) means. It means that wherever you see an x in g(x) you put in f(x).

I
t will look like this to start with
g(f(x)) = (f(x) + 5) / (f(x) 

Now substitute into this for g(-3)

g(x^2 + 5) = (x^2 + 5 + 5)/(x^2 + 5) It's time to use some numbers.
g(- 3) = ((-3)^2 + 10)/( (-3)^2 +5)
g(-3) = ( 9 + 10 ) / ( 9 + 5)
g(-3) = (19)/14 <<<<<< answer.
C <<<< answer. 
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