Answer:
26 may i have brainliest
Step-by-step explanation:
26 plus 4 equals 300 wallahh
Answer:
0.0782 (7.82%)
Step-by-step explanation:
The required probability will be found by using the Binomial Distribution which fits the case of n independent events each with a probability of success equal to p with k successes.
The PMF (Probability Mass Function) is
Where
LabTech states that the probability that a microscope is defective is 0.17%, p=0.0017, q=0.9983. We need to know the probability that k=1 microscope is defective out of a set of n=50 of them. We now apply the formula
Which means that there is a 7.82% of probability to get 1 defective microscope out of the first 50
Answer:
a)
if 1 quarter = $ 0.25
1 dime = $ 0.10
1 penny = $ 0.01
so to make the total of $1.08 and its is also required to calculate the number of each coins present without being able to make change for a dollar
therefore we say;
1 Quarter + 8 dimes + 3 penny
: ( 1 × 0.25 ) + ( 8 × 0.10 ) + ( 3 × 0.01 )
: 0.25 + 0.80 + 0.03 = $ 1.08
b)
Now if you have a 4 Quarters, you have change for $1.
If you have 5 dimes, you have change for 2 Quarters.
If you have nickel; one of those can combine with 2 dimes to have a change for a Quarter.
If you have 5 pennies, you have enough change for 1 nickel
Therefore
(4-1)×0.25 + (5-1)×0.1 + (0×0.05) + (5-1)×0.01 = x
(3 × 0.25) + ( 4 × 0.1) + 0 + ( 4 × 0.01) = x
x = 0.75 + 0.4 + 0.04
x = $ 1.19
PROVED