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Inessa05 [86]
3 years ago
14

Please help! need help with geometry work.

Mathematics
1 answer:
lakkis [162]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

1) Is 90° because that's what the little square in the corner means.

2) Is 60° because if you take everything to the right of the vertical line and add them up, and then subtract the total from 180° you can find the missing angle.

3) Is 30° because if you use what's below the horizontal line and do the same thing as number 4 (add the existing angles together and subtract the total from 180) you can find the missing angle.

4) Is 20° because if you add the existing angles together (40° + 90° + 30°), you'll get 160°, and since the diagonal line that's separating everything from 40° to 30° looks as though it equals 180°, you'd subtract 160° from 180° in order to get the missing angle.

5) Is also 90° because the angle across from it (1) looks to be around the same size.

I solved for each in the following order:

1, 5, 4, 3, 2.

I hope this helps. Also please let me know if I got something wrong or if you still need help :)

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I had $80.45 in my bank account on Monday. I deposited $20.50 on Tuesday, Wednesday, and Thursday. I then withdrew $37.25 on Fri
brilliants [131]

Answer:

$104.70

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation would be set up like this: 80.45 + 20.50(3) - 37.25. You started off with $80.45 in your bank account and deposited, or added, $20.50 every day on Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday. That would mean you added $20.50 three times. Adding $80.45 + $20.50 + $20.50 + $20.50, simplified to $80.45 + $20.50(3)  would get you $141.95 in total. Then, on Friday, you withdraw $37.25, getting the equation $141.95 - $37.25, leaving $104.70 for the weekend.

8 0
4 years ago
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In a bakery, a bag of bread rolls cost x dollars. A loaf of multi-grain bread costs $2 more than a bag of bread rolls. Mr. Lopez
Vaselesa [24]

Step-by-step explanation:

Cost of bag of bread rolls is x

Multigrain is (+2) more.

So (x+2)

Y can be the number of multigrain loves Mr. Lopez buys.

Answer: y=50/(x+2)

6 0
3 years ago
Forty is 25% of what number?
Tanya [424]
Since it is 25% all you would have to do is mutiply it by 4 to get 160. So in conclusion 160 is the answer.
7 0
3 years ago
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The sum of 4 consecutive integers is 406. find the integers
BabaBlast [244]

Answer and Step-by-step explanation:

When trying to figure this out, we know that the numbers have to be one after the other, like 1, 2, 3, 4, or 55. 56, 57, 58. The last digit in the numbers also have to add to 6.

<u>The answer is:</u>

100 + 101 + 102 + 103

It adds up to 406, and the integers are consecutive.

<u><em>#teamtrees #PAW (Plant And Water)</em></u>

<u><em></em></u>

<u><em>I hope this helps!</em></u>

8 0
3 years ago
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he number of surface flaws in plastic panels used in the interior of automobiles has a Poisson distribution with a mean of 0.02
Yakvenalex [24]

Answer:

a) 98.01%

b) 13.53\%

c) 27.06%

Step-by-step explanation:

Since a car has 10 square feet of plastic panel, the expected value (mean) for a car to have one flaw is 10*0.02 = 0.2  

If we call P(k) the probability that a car has k flaws then, as P follows a Poisson distribution with mean 0.2,

P(k)= \frac{0.2^ke^{-0.2}}{k!}

a)

In this case, we are looking for P(0)

P(0)= \frac{0.2^0e^{-0.2}}{0!}=e^{-0.2}=0.9801=98.01\%

So, the probability that a car has no flaws is 98.01%

b)

Ten cars have 100 square feet of plastic panel, so now the mean is 100*0.02 = 2 flaws every ten cars.

Now P(k) is the probability that 10 cars have k flaws and  

P(k)= \frac{2^ke^{-2}}{k!}

and  

P(0)= \frac{2^0e^{-2}}{0!}=0.1353=13.53\%

And the probability that 10 cars have no flaws is 13.53%

c)

Here, we are looking for P(1) with P defined as in b)

P(1)= \frac{2^1e^{-2}}{1!}=2e^{-2}=0.2706=27.06\%

Hence, the probability that at most one car has no flaws is 27.06%

6 0
3 years ago
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