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3 years ago

HELP MATH ANYONE PLS

Mathematics

2 answers:

seropon [69]3 years ago

7 0

18 and 3/4 is the answer to this question

erica [24]3 years ago

7 0

18 and 3/4 is the answer

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3(y – 3) = 2y – 9 + y A. one solution B. no solutions C. infinitely many solutions

Minchanka [31]

I’m pretty sure it’s A but I would just work it out to make sure

5 0

2 years ago

Which description compares the vertical asymptotes of function A and function B correctly?

neonofarm [45]

Answer:

Option B:

Function A has a vertical asymptote at x = 1

Function B has a vertical asymptote at x = -3

Step-by-step explanation:

A function f(x) has a vertical asymptote if:

$\lim_{x \to\\k^+}f(x) = \±\infty\\\\ \lim_{x \to\\k^-}f(x) = \±\infty$

This means that if there is a value k for which f(x) has infinity or a -infinity then x = k is a vertical asymptote of f(x). Therefore, the closer x to k approaches, the closer the function becomes to infinity.

We can calculate the asymptote for function A.

$\lim_{x \to \\1^+}(\frac{1}{x-1})\\\\ \lim_{x \to \\1^+}(\frac{1}{1^-1})\\\\ \lim_{x \to \\1^+}(\frac{1}{0}) = \infty\\\\and\\ \lim_{x \to \\1^-}(\frac{1}{x-1})\\\\\lim_{x \to \\1^-}(\frac{1}{0}) = -\infty$

Then, function A has a vertical asymptote at x = 1.

The asymptote of function B can be easily observed in the graph. Note that the function b is not defined for x = -3 and when x is closest to -3, f(x) approaches infinity.

Therefore x = -3 is asintota of function B.

Therefore the correct answer is option B.

8 0

2 years ago

How do you do this geometry problem

shtirl [24]

W= 79 brooooooooooooooooooo

4 0

3 years ago

Find the area of the shaded region. Round your answer to the nearest tenth if needed. 4B

AlexFokin [52]

Answer:

136.1 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

area of a circle is r^2 x pi

this is 3/4 of a circle

1. so 3/4 x 7.6^2xpi

2. 3/4 x 57.76 x pi

3. .75 x 57.76 x pi

4. 136.1

5 0

3 years ago

Penny received an unexpected $5,000.00 gift from a distant relative. She invests it

leva [86]

Answer:

$9,000.00 is her original investment worth in 10 yrs.

5000 x 1.08 ^10 = 10794.6249864

Then subtract -500000 = 5794.62498636

Step-by-step explanation:

Why, because the first year is proved 5000 x 0.08 = 400

= 400 year 1 but cna keep only if stays in investment for 10 years

400 x 10 = 4000 interest on investment

5000+ 4000 = $9,000.00 SI

+ 1,794.62 Interest on interest if applies (this is called CI) and makes $10794.62

3 0

2 years ago