The answer is B
Hope it helps!!
Step-by-step explanation:
3 answer.....
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For this case what you should know is that by definition the volume of the cone is given by:
V = ((pi) * (r ^ 2) * (h)) / (3)
Remembering that:
r = d / 2
Substituting the values:
V = ((pi) * ((d / 2) ^ 2) * (h)) / (3)
V = ((pi) * (((10) / 2) ^ 2) * (12)) / (3)
V = 314.16 ft ^ 3
Answer:
V = 314.16 ft ^ 3
The nearest option is:
300 cu. ft
Ok
So when you multiply by a fraction just multiply top by top and bottom by bottom
So top by top is 2 by 4 so 8
And bottom by bottom is 3 by 5 which is 15
So answer is 8/15
Hope this helps and don’t forget to mark as brainliest if you thought it was most helpful :)