Answer:
6.17
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
H. 2
Step-by-step explanation:
√(1 − cos² x) / sin x + √(1 − sin² x) / cos x
Use Pythagorean identity.
sin² x + cos² x = 1
So:
1 − cos² x = sin² x
and
1 − sin² x = cos² x
Substitute:
√(sin² x) / sin x + √(cos² x) / cos x
sin x / sin x + cos x / cos x
1 + 1
2
50 divided by 8 = 6.25
1oz perfume = $6.25
110 divided by 17 = 6.4705
1oz perfume = $6.4705
Therefore the second option is cheaper
Answer:
1/26=4/104
Step-by-step explanation:
The probability of pulling a diamond if completely shuffled properly, is a 1/4. Because there are 4 suits. This is only if, there are no jokers.
And the probability of pulling a jack, is a 4/51. Because there are 4 jacks out of the 51 cards, but you already pulled out a diamond card, so you take 1 out.
Multiply them together, and you will get 4/104 = 1/26
There is a 1/26 chance of pulling out a diamond card, then a jack.
Hey there!
24 tenths is 240
3 tenths is 30
1 one= 1
240-1=239
239-30=
209
Hope it helps!
