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KIM [24]
3 years ago
8

I WILL MARK BRANLIEST FOR BEST ANSWER NEED HELP FAST

Mathematics
1 answer:
In-s [12.5K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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4 quarts 2 cups − 1 quart 3 cups = ?
nevsk [136]

Answer: 2 quarts 3 cups

6 0
3 years ago
Principal = $2,400<br> Rate = 4%<br> Time = 30 months
grandymaker [24]

Answer:

$240

Step-by-step explanation:

I = prt

I = (2,400) (0.04) (2.5)  

note: I changed 4% to a decimal and 30 months to 2.5 years

I = 96 (2.5)

I = 240   <-- The interest

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

The simple interest accumulated on a principal of $ 2,400.00  at a rate of 4% per year for 2.5 years (30 months) is $240.00.

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

* Last time I did interest was in 6th grade and I don't remember much. So I am very sorry if my answer is wrong *

3 0
3 years ago
Hurry please, 20 points
nekit [7.7K]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Parallel slope = -8

Perpendicular slope = 1/8

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Express the given expanded numeral as a Hindu-Arabic numeral. (8x102) +(4x10)(2x1)
Marysya12 [62]

Answer:

The Hindu-Arabic numeral form of the given expanded numeral is 842.

Step-by-step explanation:

The given expanded numeral is

(8\times 10^2)+(4\times 10)+(2\times 1)

We need to express the given expanded numeral as a Hindu-Arabic numeral.

According to Hindu-Arabic numeral the given expanded numeral is written as

(8\times 10^2)+(4\times 10)+(2\times 1)=(8\times 100)+(4\times 10)+(2\times 1)

On simplification we get,

(8\times 10^2)+(4\times 10)+(2\times 1)=(800)+(40)+(2)

(8\times 10^2)+(4\times 10)+(2\times 1)=842

Therefore the Hindu-Arabic numeral form of the given expanded numeral is 842.

5 0
3 years ago
4. Starcraft 2 player Serral won 36 out of his last 45 matches in high-level play. Continuing with that level of competition, wh
Ganezh [65]

Answer:

Starcraft

a) Probability of losing at most 2 games = 33%

b) Probability of winning at least 4 games = 67%

Step-by-step explanation:

a) To lose 2 out of 6 games, the probability is 2/6 x 100 = 33.333%

b) To win at least 4 games out of 6, the probability is 4/6 x 100 = 66.667%

c) Since Serral is playing 6 games, for her to lose at most 2 of the games is described as a probability in this form 2/6 x 100.  This shows the chance that 2 of the games out of 6 could be lost by Serral.  On the other hand, the probability of Serral winning at least 4 of the 6 games is given as 4/6 x 100.  It implies that there is a chance, 4 out of 6, that Serral would win the game.

3 0
3 years ago
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