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Lapatulllka [165]
3 years ago
10

This type of risk puts you in immediate danger of a bad outcome because multiple risks are present at the same time.

Physics
1 answer:
katovenus [111]3 years ago
4 0
I think that’s correct too!
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A laptop can convert 400J of electrical energy into a 240J of light and sound. What is the efficiency? Where does the rest of th
Blababa [14]
Efficiency = (Wanted) energy out ÷ energy in × 100

Energy in = 400J
Wanted Energy out = 240J

Energy cannot be used up, only transferred, so the remaining energy is most likely to be transferred into unwanted energy (loss of energy) such as heat energy.

Efficiency = 240 ÷ 400 × 100
Efficiency = 0.6 × 100
Efficiency = 60%
8 0
3 years ago
Explain the costruction and working of windmill
fiasKO [112]
A windmill produces wind without electricity. wind blows on a windmill and it and that’s how it produces wind. You can put a windmill in anywhere outdoors (ex. Deserts or plains)
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Hope this helped you:)
6 0
3 years ago
2. A girl whose mass is 55kg stands on a spring weighing machine inside a lift. When the lift starts to ascend, its acceleration
Annette [7]

Answer:

b

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
How many types of quarks are there?<br> a. 2<br> b. 4<br> c. 6<br> d. 8
Nostrana [21]
There are 6 types of quarks.

Answer: C. 6
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A boy shoves his stuffed toy zebra down a frictionless chute. It starts at a height of 1.69 m above the bottom of the chute with
Veseljchak [2.6K]

Answer:

x = 6.94 m

Explanation:

For this exercise we can find the speed at the bottom of the ramp using energy conservation

Starting point. Higher

            Em₀ = K + U = ½ m v₀² + m g h

Final point. Lower

            Em_{f} = K = ½ m v²

            Em₀ = Em_{f}

            ½ m v₀² + m g h = ½ m v²

            v² = v₀² + 2 g h

             

Let's calculate

             v = √(1.23² + 2 9.8 1.69)

             v = 5.89 m / s

In the horizontal part we can use the relationship between work and the variation of kinetic energy

            W = ΔK

            -fr x = 0- ½ m v²  

               

Newton's second law

              N- W = 0

     

The equation for the friction is

               fr = μ N

               fr = μ m g

We replace

             μ m g x = ½ m v²

             x = v² / 2μ g

Let's calculate

            x = 5.89² / (2 0.255 9.8)

            x = 6.94 m

6 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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