Answer:
1. LM < PN
2. AD < DC
3. m<CAB < m<CBA
4. m<1 = m<2
Step-by-step explanation:
Recall: an angle measure is relative to the length of the opposite side. That is, the longer the side opposite to an angle, the larger the measure of that angle and vice versa.
1. LM is opposite to <LNM,
PN is opposite to <NLP
m<LNM is less than m<NLP, therefore,
LM < PN
2. AD is opposite to <ABD
DC is opposite to <DBC
m<ABD is less than m<DBC, therefore,
AD < DC
3. m<CAB is opposite to CB
m<CBA is opposite to CA
CB is less than CA, therefore,
m<CAB < m<CBA
4. The side opposite to <1 is congruent to the side opposite to <2.
Therefore,
m<1 = m<2
Answer:
25 minutes
Step-by-step explanation:
25 mintes
Alright, so since I don't have an example question, I will make one up.
there are 8 coins in total. there are 6 dimes. What is the fraction of dimes to coins.
you would put the amount of dimes on the top and the total on the bottom.
Answer: 6/8 which can be simplified to 3/4
Or another Example:
There are 12 pieces in the pizza. Billy took 4. what is the fraction of the slices left.
it would be 4-12= 8
Answer: 8/12 which can be simplified to 4/6 and then to 2/3
Hope that helped.
