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3 years ago

Will give BRAINLIEST!!!!!!

Mathematics

2 answers:

Zarrin [17]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

5 1/4

Step-by-step explanation:

To convert into an improper fraction, we times the whole number by the denominator and then add the numerator. For the first number, it is 15/4 and the second number is 7/5. Then we multiply 15/4 and 7/5 to get 5 1/4.

ANTONII [103]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

99/5

Step-by-step explanation:

CONVERT INTO:

33/4 x 12/5

MULTIPLY THE FRACTIONS:

(33x12)

--------------

CANCEL TERMS:

(33x3)

-----------

SIMPLIFY:

99/5

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Evaluate the given integral by changing to polar coordinates.

strojnjashka [21]

Answer:

The result of the integral is $\frac{\pi}{4}(\cos{4}-\cos{1})$

Step-by-step explanation:

Polar coordinates:

In polar coordinates, we have that:

$r^2 = x^2 + y^2$

$\int \int_{R} dA = \int \int_{R} r dr d\theta$

In which r is related to the radius values, while $\theta$ is related to the angles in the trigonometric circle.

In this question:

R is the region in the first quadrant

In the first quadrant in the trigonometric circles, the angles go from 0 to $\frac{\pi}{2}$ , which means that this are the outer limits of integration.

Between the circles with center the origin and radii 1 and 2

This means that the inner limits of integration are between 1 and 2.

The integral will be given by:

$\int \int_{R} \sin{x^2+y^{2}} dA = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \int_{1}^{2} \sin{r^2} r dr d\theta$

Inner integral:

$\int_{1}^{2} \sin{(r^2)} r dr$

By substituion,

$u = r^2$

$du = 2r dr$

$dr = \frac{du}{2r}$

$\int_{1}^{2} \sin{(r^2)} r dr = \int_{1}^{2} \sin{u} r \frac{du}{2r}$ = \frac{1}{2} \int_{1}^{2} \sin{u} du[/tex]

Integral of sine is minus cosine. So

$\frac{1}{2}(\cos{u})|_{1}^{2}$

Before replacing, we substitute back u.

$\frac{1}{2}(\cos{r^2})|_{1}^{2} = \frac{1}{2}(\cos{4}-\cos{1})$

Outer integral:

$\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{1}{2}(\cos{4}-\cos{1}) d\theta$

$\frac{\theta}{2}(\cos{4}-\cos{1})_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}$

$\frac{\pi}{4}(\cos{4}-\cos{1})$

The result of the integral is $\frac{\pi}{4}(\cos{4}-\cos{1})$

3 0

3 years ago

If it is 1:10 in virginia right now and its 6:10 in england how many hours are they apart

dalvyx [7]

Answer:

5 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

6:10 - 1:10 = 5

3 0

3 years ago

Keianaka and Christopher are participating in a volunteer project painting homes for elderly people in their neighborhood. Keian

Burka [1]

The K-team can paint a whole house in 60 minutes (super fast!!!). How much of a house can the team paint in 1 minute? The K-team can paint 1/60 of a house per minute.

The C-team can paint a whole hose in 80 minutes. How much of a house can the team paint in 1 minute? The C-team can paint 1/80 of a house per minute.

Suppose both teams paint for the same amount of time -- call the time t (minutes).

Combine the work they do to paint 1 whole house:

$\frac{1}{60}t+\frac{1}{80}t=1$

Multiply all the terms by the Least Common Denominator, LCD = 240.

$240(\frac{1}{60})t+240(\frac{1}{80})t=240$

Now, can you finish it? By the way, the answer is not a whole number! Hint: it will be between 30 and 40 minutes.

8 0

4 years ago

Solve for x in the equation x^2 + 2x + 1 = 17

rusak2 [61]

I hope this helps!!!!!!