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dybincka [34]
3 years ago
6

Please answer ASAP!! 20 points!​

Mathematics
1 answer:
Ede4ka [16]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: \frac{1}{6} + \frac{1}{3} = \frac{1}{6} + \frac{2}{6} = \frac{3}{6} if you want 3/6 in simplifed form it will be 1/2

Step-by-step explanation: Find the Least common denominator ( LCD). Then add the numerators.

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Answer:

2

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denominearar this hard

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3 years ago
Which of the following graphs is described by the function given below?
dusya [7]

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
Twice a number k plus 8 equals one-half times the quantity of four times a number k plus fourteen ?
belka [17]

Answer:

No solutions

Step-by-step explanation:

So putting that into an equation it equals

2k+8=(4k+14)÷2

Move the 2 to the other side.

2∙2k+8=4k+14

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8 0
3 years ago
Find the value of x, question and choices attached above
Levart [38]

Answer:

<h2>E. 22</h2>

Step-by-step explanation:

<em>Look at the picture</em>.

The lines <em>l</em> and <em>m</em> are parallel, therefore alternate interior angles are congruent.

Therefore \beta=50^o

Supplementary angles add up to 180°.

Therefore

(5x-16)+\theta=180          <em>add 16 to both sides</em>

5x+\theta=196         <em>subtract 5x from both sides</em>

\theta=196-5x

We know: the sum of the triangle angle measures is 180°.

Therefore we have the equation:

50+2x+196-5x=180\\\\-3x+246=180\qquad\text{subtract 246 from both sides}\\\\-3x=-66\qquad\text{divide both sides by (-3)}\\\\x=22

8 0
3 years ago
Find the probability of drawing a 8 of Diamonds from a 52-card deck given the deck is properly shuffled.
Naddik [55]

Answer:

1/52

Step-by-step explanation:

There is only one 8 of diamonds in a deck of 52 cards.  The deck is properly shuffled, so every card has an equal probability of being selected.  So the probability is 1/52.

7 0
4 years ago
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