Answer:
The correct answer is option C.
Explanation:
A perfectly competitive firm faces a perfectly elastic demand curve. In a perfectly competitive market, there is a large number of buyers and sellers, such that no single firm is able to affects the price or output level. The demand curve faced by a single firm is a horizontal line.
The market demand curve, on the other hand, is downward sloping. So whatever be the market elasticity of demand, the elasticity of individual firm will be infinite.
Answer:
Debit Accounts Receivable for $104,700; and Credit Sales Revenue for $104,700.
Debit Cash for $85,400; and Credit Accounts Receivable for $85,400.
Explanation:
The (summary) journal entries to record the items noted will look as follows:
<u>Particulars Debit ($) Credit ($) </u>
Accounts Receivable 104,700
Sales Revenue 104,700
<u><em>(To record net sales (all on account) for the year.) </em></u>
Cash 85,400
Accounts Receivable 85,400
<u>(Collections on accounts receivable during the year.) </u>
Examples of internal failure costs include warranty service and complaint handling. As a result, choice b is accurate.
<h3>
What do you mean by internal failure cost?</h3>
Internal failure costs are expenses related to flaws discovered prior to the client receiving the good or service. External failure costs are expenses related to flaws discovered after the client has purchased the good or service.
Internal failure costs are quality expenses related to product flaws found before a product leaves the facility.
Hence, warranty services all are examples of the internal failure cost.
Learn more about internal failure costs:
brainly.com/question/14802565
#SPJ1
Answer:
(a) 5
(b) $150 million
(c) 45 million
Explanation:
(a) Multiplier = 1 ÷ (1 - MPC
)
= 1 ÷ (1 - 0.8
)
= 1 ÷ 0.2
= 5 ⇒ the value of the simple multiplier is 5.
b) If the autonomous expenditure is increased by $30 million then the total output will increase by:
= $30 million × 5
= $150 million
c) If the Marginal propensity to import is 0.3 then the import will increase by:
= 150 × 0.3
= 45 million
The answer to this question is that the contract is voidable. A voidable contract specificallt means that the contract can still be implemented or affirmed or rejected by one of the parties due to valid reasons. A situation where in a contract can be voidable is when the other party is not in the capacity to enter into a contract.
