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3 years ago

Help pls! will do a 100 point giveaway someone pls help

Mathematics

2 answers:

Sphinxa [80]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

Euros to USD = 2,889,000.00

Pounds to USD = 5,401,320.00

Step-by-step explanation:

2,889,000.00

+ 5,401,320.00

8,290,320.00

Tomtit [17]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

$7,865,000 + (Claire's cases)

Step-by-step explanation:

Euro 2,500,000 x 1.13 = $2825000

£4,000,000 x 1.26 = $5040000

$5040000 + $2825000 = $7865000

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Algebra 1 help please

Karo-lina-s [1.5K]

Short leg = 18 Long leg= 24 Hypotenuse= 30 My calculations were simple trial and error. I started with a trial of 10 for the short leg to begin with, averaging and estimating the appropriate proportions based off 6 additional increments. Sorry I don't have an algebraic method for you. Hope this has helped somewhat :)

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3 years ago

Can someone help me with this pls i’ll give brainliest

Rom4ik [11]

Answer: C

Step-by-step explanation:

1 1/8 = 1.125

3/4 = .75

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3 years ago

Write the inequality for the linear inequality graphed below. You can

romanna [79]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago

Question is attached.<br>Step by step explanation needed!!

sweet-ann [11.9K]

Answer:

Option B

Step-by-step explanation:

Refer to the Attachment for steps.

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3 years ago

Mandy shaded the fraction strip below to represent a fraction Shade the fraction strip below so that it represents a fraction th

Aleksandr-060686 [28]

Your question is missing the figure, so the figure for your question is attached below:

Answer:

shade 2 strips out of 4 to get fraction strip equivalent to Mandy's fraction strip

Step-by-step explanation:

As Mandy shaded the 3 trips out of the total six strips. It shows the fraction of $\frac{3}{6}$

and $\frac{3}{6}=\frac{1}{2}$

To shade the given fraction strip so that it represents a fraction that is equivalent to Mandy's fraction strip, we should shade 2 stripes out of 4 that is equivalent to $\frac{1}{2}$

i.e. $\frac{2}{4}=\frac{1}{2}$

My Fraction Strip is equivalent to Mandy's Fraction Strip because both are equal to $\frac{1}{2}$

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3 years ago