3.06 rounded to the nearest whole number is 3.
.06 is much closer to 0 than it is to 1, so round down.
3.06 rounded down is 3, so that is your answer.

4 0

3 years ago

Translate the word phrase into a math expression. 15 fewer than the product of 4 and a number. 15−4x 15−4x 4x−15 4x−15 (4+x)−15

kotegsom [21]

Answer:

15-4x

Step-by-step explanation:

15 fewer is hinting at subtraction and then it states what we are subtracting 15 from which is the product of 4 and some number (4x).

7 0

4 years ago

Someone help me with this question please

Naily [24]

Answer: $t\geq 1$

Step-by-step explanation:

you would multiply by 3 on both sides to get the division to go away.

then subtract 8 from both sides.

then you have your answer

5 0

3 years ago

If X is a r.v. such that E(X^n)=n! Find the m.g.f. of X,Mx(t). Also find the ch.f. of X,and from this deduce the distribution of

astraxan [27]

$M_X(t)=\mathbb E(e^{Xt})$
$M_X(t)=\mathbb E\left(1+Xt+\dfrac{t^2}{2!}X^2+\dfrac{t^3}{3!}X^3+\cdots\right)$
$M_X(t)=\mathbb E(1)+t\mathbb E(X)+\dfrac{t^2}{2!}\mathbb E(X^2)+\dfrac{t^3}{3!}\mathbb E(X^3)+\cdots$
$M_X(t)=1+t+t^2+t^3+\cdots$
$M_X(t)=\displaystyle\sum_{k\ge0}t^k=\frac1{1-t}$

provided that $|t|$ .

Similarly,

$\varphi_X(t)=\mathbb E(e^{iXt})$
$\varphi_X(t)=1+it+(it)^2+(it)^3+\cdots$
$\varphi_X(t)=(1-t^2+t^4-t^6+\cdots)+it(1-t^2+t^4-t^6+\cdots)$
$\varphi_X(t)=(1+it)(1-t^2+t^4-t^6+\cdots)$
$\varphi_X(t)=\dfrac{1+it}{1+t^2}=\dfrac1{1-it}$

You can find the CDF/PDF using any of the various inversion formulas. One way would be to compute

$F_X(x)=\displaystyle\frac12+\frac1{2\pi}\int_0^\infty\frac{e^{itx}\varphi_X(-t)-e^{-itx}\varphi_X(t)}{it}\,\mathrm dt$

The integral can be rewritten as

$\displaystyle\int_0^\infty\frac{2i\sin(tx)-2it\cos(tx)}{it(1+t^2)}\,\mathrm dt$

so that

$F_X(x)=\displaystyle\frac12+\frac1{2\pi}\int_0^\infty\frac{\sin(tx)-t\cos(tx)}{t(1+t^2)}\,\mathrm dt$

There are lots of ways to compute this integral. For instance, you can take the Laplace transform with respect to $x$ , which gives

$\displaystyle\mathcal L_s\left\{\int_0^\infty\frac{\sin(tx)-t\cos(tx)}{t(1+t^2)}\,\mathrm dt\right\}=\int_0^\infty\frac{1-s}{(1+t^2)(s^2+t^2)}\,\mathrm dt$
$=\displaystyle\frac{\pi(1-s)}{2s(1+s)}$

and taking the inverse transform returns

$F_X(x)=\dfrac12+\dfrac1\pi\left(\dfrac\pi2-\pi e^{-x}\right)=1-e^{-x}$

which describes an exponential distribution with parameter $\lambda=1$ .

6 0

3 years ago