This is how im feeling rn-
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Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a:
- 0.0036 = 0.36% probability that both are allergic to pollen.
- 0.1164 = 11.64% probability that at least one is allergic to pollen.
The formula is:
The parameters are:
- x is the number of successes.
- n is the number of trials.
- p is the probability of a success on a single trial.
Researching the problem on the internet, it is found that:
- 6% of the population is allergic to pollen, hence p = 0.06.
- Two people are chosen at random, hence n = 2.
The probability that both are allergic is P(X = 2), hence:
P(X = 2) = 0.06^2 = 0.0036.
0.0036 = 0.36% probability that both are allergic to pollen.
The probability of at least one is:
P(X >= 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.94^2 = 1 - 0.8836 = 0.1164.
0.1164 = 11.64% probability that at least one is allergic to pollen.
More can be learned about the binomial distribution at brainly.com/question/24863377