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posledela
3 years ago
7

In the early 1970's, Canada Post started using six-character postal codes. Each postal code uses three letters and three digits

in an alternating pattern. How many different Canadian postal codes are possible?
Mathematics
1 answer:
pogonyaev3 years ago
4 0
A Canadian postal code looks  like this:

                   K1A 3B1 .

So you have:  letter - digit - letter - digit - letter - digit .

The question doesn't say anything about restrictions on
which letters can be used, or restrictions on repeating letters
or digits within one postal code. So as far as we know, each
letter can be any one of 26, and each digit can be any one of 10.

The total number of possibilities would be

                 (26·10·26)  ·  (10·26·10)  =  17,576,000 .

In the real world, though, (or at least in Canada), Postal codes
don't include the letters D, F, I, O, Q or U, and the first letter
does not use W or Z. When you work it out with these restrictions,
it means there's a theoretical limit of 7.2 million postal codes.
The practical limit is a bit lower, as Canada Post reserves some
codes for special functions, such as for test or promotional purposes. 
One example is the code H0H 0H0 for Santa Claus !  Other special
codes are for sorting mail bound for destinations outside Canada.

At the present time, there are a little over 830,000 active postal codes.
That's about 12% of the total possibilities, so there are still plenty of codes
left for expansion.
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Shkiper50 [21]
Part A:Bees:  f ( t ) = 1,500 * 0.88^tFlowering plants: g ( t ) = 800 - 25 tPart B :f ( 6 ) = 1,500 * 0.88^6 = 696.6  ≈ 697
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5 0
3 years ago
Which of the following pairs of functions are inverses of each other ​
Ghella [55]

Option (A) represents the function and its inverse of a function option (A) is correct.

<h3>What is a function?</h3>

It is defined as a special type of relationship, and they have a predefined domain and range according to the function every value in the domain is related to exactly one value in the range.

We have a function and inverse of a function shown in the picture.

Checking for option (A):

\rm f(x) = \dfrac{x}{4}+10 \ \ \ and \  \ \ g(x)  = 4x -10

Taking f(x):

\rm f(x) = \dfrac{x}{4}+10

To find the inverse of a function interchange the x and y variables:

f(x) → x

x  → g(x)

\rm x = \dfrac{g(x)}{4}+10

Solving:

4x = g(x) + 10

g(x) = 4x - 10

Similarly, we can find the inverse of a function.

Thus, option (A) represents the function and its inverse of a function option (A) is correct.

Learn more about the function here:

brainly.com/question/5245372

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8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please help i will give you brainly!!!!!!
Vitek1552 [10]

Answer:

1. $33.00

2. $48.00

3. $3.00

4. $36.40

Step-by-step explanation:

44.00 - 25% = 33 —> $33.00

80.00 - 40% = 48 —> $48.00

9.99 - 70% = 2.997 —> (round the 7 up because it's above 5) $3.00

52.00 - 30% = 36.4 —> $36.40

6 0
2 years ago
David made $80,950 last year. If his income is decreased by 7.25%, what is his adjusted
Taya2010 [7]

Answer:

75081

Step-by-step explanation: multiply 80950 by 0.9275

5 0
2 years ago
Easy Slider Inc. sold a 15-year $1,000 face value bond with a 10% coupon rate. Interest is paid annually. After flotation costs,
Softa [21]

Answer:

6.6%

Step-by-step explanation:

We find the cost of the bond. Yield to maturity is the yield for bond holder but cost for the  issuer like Easy Slider.

Formula is

P=CP(1-(1+x)^-n)/x + FV/(1+x)^n

where P is the price of bond in the market. So, the selling price of Easy Slider Inc bond is 928

CP= coupon payment. Here, CP is 10% of 1000. So, $100

FV= Face value. Here, FV is $1000

n= maturity of the bond. Here, n=15

x= cost of the bond before tax

putting the value in the equation

928=100(1-(1+x)^-15)/x + 1000/(1+x)^15

solving for x, we get 0.1100

Now, if we find out after tax then

0.1100(1-T)= After tax cost

0.1100(1-0.4)

0.066 or 6.66%

6 0
3 years ago
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