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yawa3891 [41]
3 years ago
15

Will mark as brainlist

Mathematics
2 answers:
noname [10]3 years ago
8 0

Step-by-step explanation:

a=12

d=6-12=-6

Tn=a+(n-1)d

Tn=12+(n-1)×-6

Tn=12+(-6)(n-1)

a_sh-v [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

the answer is A

Step-by-step explanation:

be my friend please

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According to the Mortgage Bankers Association, 8% of U.S. mortgages were delinquent in 2011. A delinquent mortgage is one that h
shepuryov [24]

Answer:

The probability that exactly one of these mortgages is delinquent is 0.357.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that according to the Mortgage Bankers Association, 8% of U.S. mortgages were delinquent in 2011. A delinquent mortgage is one that has missed at least one payment but has not yet gone to foreclosure.

A random sample of eight mortgages was selected.

The above situation can be represented through Binomial distribution;

P(X=r) = \binom{n}{r}p^{r} (1-p)^{n-r} ; x = 0,1,2,3,.....

where, n = number of trials (samples) taken = 8 mortgages

            r = number of success = exactly one

           p = probability of success which in our question is % of U.S.

                  mortgages those were delinquent in 2011, i.e; 8%

<em>LET X = Number of U.S. mortgages those were delinquent in 2011</em>

So, it means X ~ Binom(n=8, p=0.08)

Now, Probability that exactly one of these mortgages is delinquent is given by = P(X = 1)

                 P(X = 1)  = \binom{8}{1}\times 0.08^{1} \times (1-0.08)^{8-1}

                               = 8 \times 0.08 \times 0.92^{7}

                               = 0.357

<u><em>Hence, the probability that exactly one of these mortgages is delinquent is 0.357.</em></u>

4 0
3 years ago
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