Juan is 3 years younger than half his aunts age. If Juan is 27 years old, how old is his aunt?

At 8:00 pm on Wednesday a friend in San Francisco, California (based on 120 degrees W) calls a friend in Miami, Florida (75 degr

____ [38]

Answer:

11:00 pm Wednesday

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

Current Time in San Francisco:

$Time = 8:00pm\ (Wednesday)$ at 120 deg W

Required

Determine the current time at Miami at 75 deg W

First, we need to calculate the hours difference between San Franciso and Miami

$Hours = 120\deg - 75\deg$

$Hours = 45\deg$

Convert degrees to hours.

$15\deg =1\ hour$

So:

$Hours = 45\deg$

$Hours = 3 * 15\deg$

$Hours = 3 * 1\ hour$

$Hours = 3\ hours$

The above is the time difference between San Francisco and Miami;

The time in Miami is then calculated as:

$Miami = 8:00pm + 3\ hours$

$Miami = 11:00pm$

Hence, the time at Miami is: 11:00 pm Wednesday

6 0

3 years ago

PLEASE EXPLAIN HOW TO DO THIS PROBLEM

jarptica [38.1K]

Answer:

y=1/3x + 2

Step-by-step explanation:

the y intercept is 2, and the second point goes up 1 over 3

rise over run

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Please help I’ll give Brainly pleas

blondinia [14]

Answer:

3rd Definition

Step-by-step explanation:

A sphere is a three dimensional and round, and every point on its surface is the same distance from its center.

5 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

What is the probability that the system does not have a type 2defect?b.What is the probability that the system has both type 1 a

Lana71 [14]

Answer:

a. 0.93 b. 0.06 c. 0.05

Step-by-step explanation:

Probability is commonly known as the chance of success of a particular event. The probability of failure of the event can also be estimated.

(a) Probability of not having type 2 defect is: $P(A_{2}^{'})$ $= 1 - P(A_{2})$ = 1 - 0.07 = 0.93

(b) Probability of having type 1 and 2 defects is: $P(A_{1} n A_{2}) = P(A_{1}) + P(A_{2}) - P(A_{1}U A_{2}) = 0.12 + 0.07 - 0.13 = 0.06$

(c) probability pf having both type 1 and type 2 defects but not type 3 defect is:

$P(A_{1} + A_{2} + A^{'} _{3}) = P(A_{1} n A_{2}) - P(A_{1} n A_{2} n A_{3}) = 0.06 - 0.01 = 0.05$

3 0

3 years ago

Here are some points, have a good day!

Mnenie [13.5K]

Answer:

.....

Step-by-step explanation:

................thanks.......

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers