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svet-max [94.6K]
2 years ago
15

For my younger brother no links or bots

Mathematics
2 answers:
GarryVolchara [31]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

4/8 and 8/16

6/18 and 12/16

2/16

1/4 and 4/16

6/16

Step-by-step explanation:

Brainliest?

Sophie [7]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

make thm inproper fractions is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

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On a coordinate plane, two parabolas open up. The solid-line parabola, labeled f of x, goes through (negative 2, 4), has a verte
k0ka [10]

Answer: i beleve it should be a

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is c=46 and d=3
Pavel [41]

equation :

3 x 5=15 46-15= 31

5 0
3 years ago
Sylvia enlarged a photo to make a 24 x 32 inch poster using the dilation DQ,4. What are the dimensions, in inches, of the origin
RSB [31]

Answer:

6 × 8

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the dilation factor is 4, and the image was ENLARGED, that means the original photo was smaller.  Smaller by a factor of 4.

So, we take the new dimensions (24x32) and we divide each side by the dilation factor of 4:

(24/4) x (32/4) = 6 x 8

It couldn't be the first answer choice (3x8) because  that doesn't maintain the ratio of the enlarge picture.  The other possible answers do match the right ratio... but only 6x8 is scaled by a factor of 4.

3 0
3 years ago
Simplify by dividing <br> 3/5 ÷ -4/9<br><br> 1. -27/20<br> 2. 27/20<br> 3. -12/45<br> 4. 12/45
kramer

Answer:

The answer to your question is -27/20

Step-by-step explanation:

Divide         3/5  ÷  - 4/9

Process

1.- Just multiply the numerator of the first fraction by the denominator of the second fraction.                                      

                    3 x - 9 = -27

2.- Multiply the denominator of the first fraction by the numerator of the second fraction.

                    5 x 4 = 20

3.- Join both results

                               -27/20

5 0
2 years ago
Based on the 2009 season, the Texas Rangers have a winning percentage of .533. Use the binomial model to find the probability th
Naddik [55]

Answer:

0.128

Step-by-step explanation:

We know the probability for any event X is given by,

P(X=x)=\binom{n}{x}\times p^{n-x}\times q^{x},

where p is the probability of success and q is the probability of failure.

Here, we are given that p = 0.533.

Since, we have that q = 1 - p

i.e. q = 1 - 0.533

i.e. q = 0.467

It is required to find the probability of 4 wins in the next 5 games i.e. P(X=4) when n = 5.

Substituting the values in the above formula, we get,

P(X=4)=\binom{5}{4}\times 0.533^{5-4}\times 0.467^{4}

i.e. P(X=4)=5 \times 0.533 \times 0.048

i.e. P(X=4)=5 \times 0.533 \times 0.048

i.e. i.e. P(X=4)=0.128

Hence, the probability of 4 wins in the next 5 games is 0.128.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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