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Elza [17]
2 years ago
11

Which of the following would be an acceptable first step in simplifying the expression tanx/1+ secx

Mathematics
2 answers:
djverab [1.8K]2 years ago
4 0

The acceptable first step in simplifying the expression \mathbf{\frac{tan\ x}{1 + sec\ x}} is (a) \mathbf{\frac{tan\ x(1 - sec\ x)}{(1 + sec\ x)(1 - sec\ x)}}

The expression is given as:

\mathbf{\frac{tan\ x}{1 + sec\ x}}

To change the form of the expression, we simply perform several arithmetic operations on it.

Start by multiplying the expression by 1/1

\mathbf{\frac{tan\ x}{1 + sec\ x} = \frac{tan\ x}{1 + sec\ x} \times \frac 11}

Express 1 /1 as (1 - sec x)/(1 - sec x)

\mathbf{\frac{tan\ x}{1 + sec\ x} = \frac{tan\ x}{1 + sec\ x} \times \frac{1 - sec\ x}{1 - sec\ x}}

Rewrite the above expression as follows:

\mathbf{\frac{tan\ x}{1 + sec\ x} = \frac{tan\ x(1 - sec\ x)}{(1 + sec\ x)(1 - sec\ x)}}

Hence, the acceptable first step is (a)

Read more about trigonometry ratios at:

brainly.com/question/24888715

Tresset [83]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

The possible first step is A

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300€ durante 5 años al 0.3% de interés compuesto mensual. A) ¿Cuánto interés se ha ganado? B) Cuánto interés se ha ganado?
marysya [2.9K]

Answer:

Interes ganado= €59.07

Step-by-step explanation:

Dada la siguiente informacion:

300€ durante 5 años al 0.3% de interés compuesto mensual.

<u>Para calcular el valor final de la inversión y el interés ganado, debemos usar la siguiente formula:</u>

FV= PV*(1 + i)^n

Present Value= 300

i= 0.003

n= 5*12= 60 meses

FV= 300*(1.003^60)

FV= 359.07

Interes ganado= 359.07 - 300

Interes ganado= 59.07

5 0
3 years ago
A car travels at a constant speed for 2 hours. what is that speed miles per hour
earnstyle [38]

Answer:

Distance/2 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

Distance=Speed times Time, and since the time is 2 hours, we can say Distance=Speed times 2 hours.

Now we divide both sides by 2 hours, resulting in Distance/2 Hours= Speed.

DUBS

Please consider a brainliest!

3 0
3 years ago
Prove that the gregorian calendar repeats itself every 400 years.
Setler79 [48]

The calendar obviously has an integral number of years and months in 400 years. If it has an integral number of weeks, then it will repeat itself after that time. The rules of the calendar eliminate a leap year in 3 out of the four century years, so there are 97 leap years in 400 years. The number of excess days of the week in 400 years can be found by ...

(303·365) mod 7 + (97·366) mod 7 = (2·1 + 6·2) mod 7 = 14 mod 7 = 0

Thus, there are also an integral number of weeks in 400 years.

The first day of the week is the same at the start of every 400-year interval, so the calendar repeats every 400 years.

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3 years ago
Combine the following expressions.<br><br> <img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=a%20%5Csqrt%7Bx%7D%20%20%2B%20b%20%5Csqrt%7By%7D%20
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I hope this helps you

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Bas_tet [7]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

Hope it helps

7 0
3 years ago
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