10 pts

Target's liabilities exceed owners' equity.<br> a) true<br> b) false

Likurg_2 [28]

Answer: True

Explanation:

As of February 2020, Target Corp's total liabilities were listed to be $30,946,000,000 while its shareholder equity was significantly lower at $11,833,000,000.

Target Corp therefore does indeed have liabilities that exceed owners equity and by a substantial amount. This has also been the trend since at least 2015.

4 0

3 years ago

1- what does agency do?<br><br>2- how does this agency help you as a consumer?

Vitek1552 [10]

1 - an orginization or buisness that provides a service
2 - Provides what the consumer is looking for

7 0

3 years ago

Suppose the price of Vanilla Coke increases by 9% and quantity demanded falls by 13% overall, but only 4% for loyal Coca-Cola cu

Gennadij [26K]

Answer: A) several substitutes; necessity; loyal Coca-Cola customers

Explanation:

SEVERAL SUBSTITUTES

Substitute goods are goods that are similar and so can be used in place of the other. Generally when the price of a good with a substitute increases, people switch to their substitutes if their price remain the same. The demand for vanilla coke dropped when it's prices rose signifying that people switched to the substitutes.

NECESSITY GOODS

These are also known as normal goods and increase in relation to income. That is if income increases, they increase as well but at a lower rate. Since we are assuming that the income of coke loyalists did not change but rather the prices rose and the demand reduced at a rate less than the increase in price we can safely assume that vanilla coke is a necessary good to Coca-Cola loyalists.

LOYAL COCA-COLA CUSTOMERS

Because the reduction in demand for Vanilla coke amongst Coca-Cola loyalists is less than the increase in price as opposed to the general public where the reduction in demand is more than the increase in price, we can say that an increase in total revenue is only coming from the loyal coke customers.

5 0

3 years ago

The allowance for doubtful accounts currently has a debit balance of $200. The company's management estimates that 2.5% of net c

lidiya [134]

Answer:

Bad debt expense (w/o allowance) = $2,875

Bad debt expense ( with allowance) = $2,675.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

Net credit sales = $115,000

Uncollectible percentage = 2.5%

So, we can calculate the bad debt expense without Allowance for doubtful accounts by using following method:

Bad debt expense ( W/o allowance) = $115,000 × 2.5%

= $2,875

After Allowance for doubtful expense

Bad debt expense = $2,875 - $200

= $2,675

4 0

3 years ago

Consider a no-load mutual fund with $200 million in assets and 10 million shares at the start of the year and with $250 million

frez [133]

Answer:

273.75%

Explanation:

Note: Capital Gain distribution would be $50.25, NOT $.25 (typing mistake)

This is no-load MF. But there are other two types of MF (Mutual Funds).

If FL MF (Front Load Mutual Fund), investors pay something upfront when investing.

In BL MF (Back Load Mutual Fund), investors pay when exiting the MF.

Here, this is no load, so calulations are easier.

Now,

NAV (Net Asset Value) is the total assets divided by number of shares.

NAV beginning of year and NAV end of year. Total expense ratio will be adjusted from NAV, end of year.

NAV, beginning = 200 million / 10 million shares = $20

NAV, end = 250 - (0.01*250) / 11 million shares = $22.5

Now,

Rate of Return of the Fund = (NAV,end - NAV,beginning + Income Distribution + Capital Gain Distribution - Liabilities) / NAV, beginning

We have:

Rate of Return = ($22.5 - $20 + $2 + $50.25 - $0) / $20 = 2.7375

Converting to percentage:

2.7375 * 100 = 273.75%

5 0

3 years ago