Answer:
D
Explanation:
In my opinion, option d includes all major points of harassment
Answer:
$600
Explanation:
In this situation, first we have to know that tax levy on assessed value.
<u>Computation of tax rate:</u>
Appraised Value = $25,000
Assessed value = $20,000
Tax = $300
Tax rate = ($300 / $20,000) x 100 = 1.5%
Assume Appraised Value = $45,000
Assume Assessed value = $40,000
Calculation of tax value = Assessed value x tax rate
= $40,000 x 1.5%
= $600
Based on the economic and financial analysis, the main reason for considering <u>nonconstant growth</u> in dividends is to allow for "<u>Supernormal</u>" growth rates over "<u>some finite length of time</u>."
This is because, in nonconstant growth, the growth rate cannot surpass the mandatory return indefinitely.
However, there is the probability that it could do so for some number of years.
Also, it should be noted that in this situation, the value of the stock equates to the present value of all the future dividends.
Hence, in this case, it is concluded that the correct answer is <u>supernormal</u> and <u>some finite length of time</u>.
Learn more here: brainly.com/question/13223703
Answer:
d. Choose Option B because it has a higher NPV
Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
For Option A:
Investment = $10 million
Present Value of cash flows = Cash flow ÷ Discounting rate
= $2 ÷ 10%
= $20 million
Now
NPV = $20 - $10
= $10 million
We know that
IRR is the rate at which the NPV will be zero
So, 2 ÷ r - 10 = 0
r = 20%
For Option B:
Investment = $50 million
Present Value of cash flows = $6.5 ÷ 10% = $65 million
NPV = $65 - $50 = $15 million
we know that
IRR is the rate at which the NPV will be zero
So, 6.5÷ r -50 = 0
r = 13%
Based on NPV, Option B should be selected as it contains higher NPV as compared to option A.
However, Based on IRR, Option A should be chosen as it contains higher IRR and a higher IRR represent a higher profit percentage
