Answer:
obtuse angle
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer: The answer is the first explanation.
Step-by-step explanation: We are given five different options and we are to select which explanation is correct to derive the formula for a circumference of a circle.
Let 'C' be the circumference and 'd' be the diameter of a circle. Now, we will write the ratio of the circumference to the diameter as

Also, we know that

And diameter of a circle is twice the radius, so

Therefore,

This is the formula for the circumference of a circle. Since this explanation matches exactly with the first option, so the correct option is
(a). Find the relationship between the circumference and the diameter by dividing the length of the circumference and length of the diameter. Use this quotient to set up an equation to showing the ratio of the circumference over the diameter equals to π . Then rearrange the equation to solve for the circumference. Substitute 2 times the radius for the diameter.
Answer:
7:11
Step-by-step explanation:
There is no way to simplify the ratio.
If its volume (Not so sure about surface area?) than its 432 inches^3
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
A vertical stretch by a factor of k means that the point (x, y) on the graph of f (x) is transformed to the point (x, ky) on the graph of g(x), where k <1.
If k =1, then same graph we obtain and if k>1 we get a vertically shrink graph.
In our question, there is a vertical stretch of 3. This means new graph would have points as (x,y/3)
i.e. instead of f(x) = y, we have now f(x) = y/3
So transformation is g(x) = 3f(x)
Option A is correct.
2) Here f(x) = 3x+8 is transformed to g(x) =3x+6
i.e. y intercept is reduced by 2 units. Hence there is a translation of 2 units down.