Explain why the expression 10 to the power of zero, one to the power of four and 1×1.0 to the power of zero have the same value
1 answer:
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So... our numbers... let's say the first one is hmmm "a"
so the second and subsequent are
a
a+1
a+2
a+3
a+4
there, 5 consecutive whole numbers or integers for that matter
now, we know the sum of the square of the first three,
is the same as the sum of the square of the last two
so
do a binomial theorem expansion on those, solve for "a"
so the second and subsequent are
a
a+1
a+2
a+3
a+4
there, 5 consecutive whole numbers or integers for that matter
now, we know the sum of the square of the first three,
is the same as the sum of the square of the last two
so
do a binomial theorem expansion on those, solve for "a"