Answer:
C. Under-capitalized
Explanation:
Tier Capital/Risk-weighted assets = (90 million + 70 million)/2,017.6 million
= 7.93%;
Tier 1 Capital /Risk-weighted assets = 90 million /2,017.6 million
= 4.46%;
Tier Capital/Total assets= (90 million + 70 million)/2,522 million
= 6.34%.
The first ratio puts the bank in the undercapitalized zone.
Answer:
The statement is: True.
Explanation:
The matching principle of the Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (<em>GAAP</em>) states that the expenses a company incurs during a period must match with the revenues those expenses were incurred during the same period. This principle is usually implemented with the accrual accounting method leaving in clear that expenses are incurred to generate profit.
Answer:
A) DOL = 1.33 times; DFL = 1.80 times; and DCL = 2.4 times
B) Next years expected Earnings before interest and tax = $5.5 million; and Net years expected net income = $2.45 million
C) Next years expected Earnings before interest and tax = $2.5 million; and Net years expected net income = $0.35 million
Explanation:
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The maturity risk premium on the 2-year Treasury security is C. 1.39%
Using this formula
rd = r* + IP + MRP
Where
rd represent Required rate of return on 2-year Treasury Security = 6 75%
r* represent real risk free return = 3.18%
IP represent Inflation Premium = 2.18%
MRP represent Maturity Risk Premium
Let plug in the formula
6.75% = 3.18% + 2.18% + MPR
6.75%=5.36%
MRP=6.75% -5.36%
MRP = 1.39%
Inconclusion the maturity risk premium on the 2-year Treasury security is C. 1.39%.
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The two forces are:
1. Falling barriers to trade and investments: Many countries of the world now allow their countries to engage in trade with other countries, this has led to increase in globalization of markets and production.
2.Technological innovations: technology has made so many things possible in the business world today.The whole world has been linked up by internet and this makes it easier for a company to market its products to the whole world.