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AlekseyPX
3 years ago
11

Find m<1. Please help quick!

Mathematics
1 answer:
GenaCL600 [577]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

17°

Step-by-step explanation:

Look everything you have above the horizontal line.

It's a 73° angle, plus the one you need, plus 90°. They add up to 180.

m+73+90=180, or m=17.

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Question 2(Multiple Choice Worth 1 points)
Tomtit [17]

The sequence is " Algebraic, common difference = −10 " ⇒ 1st answer

Step-by-step explanation:

Let us revise the algebraic and geometric sequences

  • The Algebraic sequence is the sequence that has a common difference between each two consecutive terms, like 2 , 5 , 8 , 11 , 14 , .......... the difference between the 5 and 2 is equal to the difference between 8 and 5, and the difference between 11 and 8 and the difference between 14 and 11
  • The geometric sequences is the sequence that has a common ratio between each two consecutive terms, like 3 , -9 , 27 , -81 , ...... the ratio between -9 and 3 as the ratio between 27 and -9 as the ratio between -81 and 27

→  x   :    1    :    2    :    3    :    4

→ f(x) :    5   :   -5    :    -15  :    -25

x represents the positions of the terms

f(x) represents the value of each term

∵ 1st = 5 and 2nd = -5

∵ -5 - 5 = -10

∵ 2nd = -5 and 3rd = -15

∵ -15 - (-5) = -15 + 5 = -10

∵ 3rd = -15 and 4th = -25

∵ -25 - (-15) = -25 + 15 = -10

∴ There is a common difference -10 between each two

   consecutive terms

∴ The sequence is algebraic with common difference -10

The sequence is " Algebraic, common difference = −10 "

Learn more:

You can learn more about the sequences in brainly.com/question/1522572

#LearnwithBrainly

8 0
3 years ago
Binomial Theorem, proof
IrinaVladis [17]

It follows from the definition of the binomial coefficient:

\dbinom nr=\dfrac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}

So we have

(n+1)\dbinom nr=(n+1)\dfrac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}=(r+1)\dfrac{(n+1)!}{(r+1)!(n-r)!}

That is, (n+1) gets absorbed into the numerator's factorial, and we introduct (r+1) into the denominator. Now, (n+1)-(r+1)=n-r, so we get

(n+1)\dbinom nr=(r+1)\dfrac{(n+1)!}{(r+1)!((n+1)-(r+1))!}=(r+1)\dbinom{n+1}{r+1}

as required.

4 0
3 years ago
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