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ankoles [38]
3 years ago
11

in January, Dawn earns $9.25 allowance. She earns 3 times as much in February. If during March, she earns $5.75 more than she di

d in February, how much allowance does Dawn earn in March?
Mathematics
2 answers:
AURORKA [14]3 years ago
8 0
Jan: 9.25
Feb: 9.25 x 3 = 27.75
March: 27.75 + 5.75 = 33.50

Dawn earns $33.50
Yuki888 [10]3 years ago
4 0
Dawn earns $33.5 in March because $9.25x3=$27.75 and $27.75+$5.75=$33.5.

Hope that helped:)
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Angle 2=3, so angle 1=4 because angles ABC & BCD equal 90°. When you add together the angles of a triangle you get 180 and if you could put angle 1 and 4 together it would look like an upward version.



That is the best way I could describe it. Hope that helps.
8 0
3 years ago
Please help me this question​
ANTONII [103]

Answer:

0

Step-by-step explanation:

bcoz 2^5 X 9²=2592

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5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
-6 - 3(2x + 4) = 18what’s the answer
Brrunno [24]

Answer:

x=-6

Step-by-step explanation:

-6-3\left(2x+4\right)=18

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-6-3\left(2x+4\right)+6=18+6

-3\left(2x+4\right)=24

Divide both sides by -3:

\frac{-3\left(2x+4\right)}{-3}=\frac{24}{-3}

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7 0
3 years ago
Given: △EDN∼△LKI, DQ , KO are altitudes, DN=12, KI=4, DQ=KO+6. Find: QN and OI.
fgiga [73]

Answer:

  • QN = 3√7
  • OI = √7

Step-by-step explanation:

The ratio of corresponding sides DN and KI is 12 : 4 = 3 : 1. The same ratio applies to altitudes DQ and KO. Since the difference between these altitudes is 6 and the difference between their ratio units is 3-1 = 2, each ratio unit must stand for 6/2 = 3 units of linear measure. That is, ...

  DQ = (3 units)·3 = 9 units

  KO = (3 units)·1 = 3 units

Then the base lengths QN and OI can be found from the Pythagorean theorem:

  KI² = KO² +OI²

  4² = 3² +OI²

  OI = √(16 -9)

  OI = √7

  QN = 3·OI = 3√7

8 0
3 years ago
How do you you divide 67by6
Law Incorporation [45]
You first set it up as long division. 
Second you would find out how many times 6 goes into 67, so count by 6's until you get close 67.
Third once you get that number you write it on top of the long division and then you would subtract whatever that number is below which is 66 because 6 * 11= 66.
So then you would subtract 67 minus 66 which would be 1. Then go from there and you'll get your answer.

Hope this helps!
6 0
3 years ago
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