Answer: ez
Step-by-step explanation:
its b
Answer:
The answer is 600.
Step-by-step explanation:
This is because 5 percent of 800 is 40. 800+40 = 840. 15 percent of 800 is 160. 840 - 160 is 680. 10 percent of 800 is 80. 680 - 80 is 600.
If this is right an you mar me brainliest? Thank you and have a good day!
Answer:
No. See explanation below.
Step-by-step explanation:
Since the cards are being selected <u>without replacement,</u> every time we select a card, <u>the probability varies</u> (since there is one less card) and therefore, the probability doesn't remain the same for every trial and therefore, the probability of success changes for every trial.
It is because of this that this probability experiment doesn't represent a binomial experiment.
SOLUTION
Given the question in the question tab, the following are the solution steps to answer the question.
STEP 1: Write the formula for calculating compound amount
where
A = final compounded amount
P = initial principal balance
r = interest rate
n = number of times interest applied per time period
t = number of time periods elapsed
STEP 2: Write the given data
Semiannually means that n will be 2
STEP 3: Calculate the compound amount
Hence, the compounded amount after 4 years is $18,748.1972
