Answer:
Option C is correct
Explanation:
The cash proceeds from the bond issuance is 96% of its face value i.e 96%*$1,000,000=$960,000
The discount on bonds payable=Face value-cash proceeds
The discount on bonds payable=$1,000,000-$960,000=$40,000
The appropriate entries would be to credit bonds payable with $1000,000 while cash and discount on bonds payable are debited with $960,000 and $40,000 respectively
For compounding interest, there is a formula relating the present worth (P) with the annuity (A). This is shown in the picture. The 'i' is the effective interest rate while n is the time. You should make sure that you are consistent with the units. If your time is in terms of years, your interest should be in terms of percent per year compounded yearly. Moreover, your annuity should be per yearly basis. In this case, it is already consistent so we don't need to convert. Substituting the values,
P = 10,000[(1.08^9-1)/(0.08*1.08^9)]
P = $62,468.88
Answer:
73.22
Explanation:
You first multiple 12 by 3.50 and 1.74
From there, you get:
9 + 1.34 + 12 + 42 + 20.88
After that, you just simply add all the variables together.
Hope this helped!
I will use a debit card because my parents add my allowance to my checking account. Other possible payment decisions I can make are to use a check.
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