Answer:
a. There are different possible ways that homologous pairs might line up
c. Different alignments of homologous pairs will cause different combinations of alleles in gametes.
Explanation:
The law of independent assortment, proposed by Mendel, states that the alleles of one gene segregate into gametes independently of the alleles of another gene. This means that the segregation of one gene does not affect another. This law of independent assortment is evident during gamete formation in sexually-reproducing organisms know as meiosis. Specifically, in the Metaphase 1 stage of meiosis 1, homologous chromosomes (similar but non-identical chromosomes received from each parent) lines up at the metaphase plate (cell equator).
The lining up of chromosomes in this stage occurs randomly making it possible for chromosomes to align in different possible ways. The way/manner the chromosomes align at the equator determines which chromosome combination gets separated into which gamete. The homologous chromosomes are randomly distributed at the cell's equator before segregates into gametes. This random orientation enables the alleles of each gene on a chromosome to combine in different random ways, hence, allowing genetic diversity in the resulting gametes (sperm and egg) they get segregated into.
Which statement about bases is incorrect?
Answer:
Bases contain hydrogen ions Is the Correct Answer!
A base is a substance that accepts hydrogen ions. When a base is dissolved in water, the balance between hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions shifts the opposite way.
Hope this helps!
Answer:
mark brainliest :))
Explanation:
Because baldness is a sex-linked trait.
In other words, men are simply more likely to express the trait for baldness than women are, because they only need one set of genes for baldness, while women need two.
If, for example, for each gene there is a 1/2 chance that the gene will be for baldness and 1/2 that it will not, then men have a 1/2 chance (because 1/2^1 = 1/2) of being bald, while women have a 1/4 chance (because 1/2^2 = 1/4) of being bald.
This is the reason it's called "male-pattern baldness": it is more common in males. However, this does not explain nor rule out the dearth of women with baldness-women can get it too: it's just less common
The answer is c. last time i had that and my teacher said it was c
