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AlexFokin [52]
2 years ago
15

A real estate professional leased a building for 10 years at an annual rent of $48,000. She will receive a commission of 7.5% fo

r the first five years, 5% for the next three years, and 3.5% for the final two years. What will her gross income be from this commission over the life of the lease
Business
1 answer:
Alex Ar [27]2 years ago
3 0

Her gross income from this commission over the life of the lease is $28,560.

Commission for the first five years

Commission=5×(48,000× .075)

Commission=5×3600

Commission=$18,000

Commission for the next three years

Commission=3×(48,000 ×.05)

Commission=3×2,400

Commission=$7,200

Commission for the final two years

Commission=2×(48,000 ×.035)

Commission=2×1,680

Commission=$3,360

Gross income commission:

Gross income commission=$18,000+$7,200+$3,360

Gross income commission=$28,560

Inconclusion her gross income from this commission over the life of the lease is $28,560.

Learn more about gross income commission here:brainly.com/question/24825618

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Consider the following projects. Project CO C1 C2 СЗ C4 C5 A -1,000 +1,000 0 0 0 10 B -2,000 |+1,000 |+1,000 +4,000 +1,000 +1,00
Nuetrik [128]

Answer:

a) $3,458

Explanation:

The net present value is the present value of future cash flows discounted at the firm's weighted average cost of capital(which is the appropriate discount rate in this case) minus the initial investment outlay

cost of equity=risk-free rate+beta*(expected market return-risk free rate)

cost of equity=2.5%+1.5*(12%-2.5%)

cost of equity=16.75%

after-tax cost of debt=5.2%*(1-21%)

after-tax cost of debt=4.11%

WACC=(weight of equity*cost of equity)+(weight of debt*after-tax cost of debt)

weight of equity=value of equity/(value of equity+value of debt)

value of equity=6 billion*$3=$18 billion

value of debt=$5 billion

weight of equity=$18 billion/($18 billion+$5 billion)

weight of equity=78.26%

weight of debt=1-78.26%

weight of debt=21.74%

WACC=(78.26%*16.75%)+(21.74%*4.11%)

WACC=14.00%

present value of a future cash flow=future cash flow/(1+WACC)^n

n is the year in which the cash flow is expected, it is 1 for year 1 cash flow, 2 for year 2 cash flow ,and so on

NPV of project B=1000/(1+14%)^1+1000/(1+14%)^2++4000/(1+14%)^3+1000/(1+14%)^4+1000/(1+14%)^5-2000

NPV of project B=$ 3,458.00  

5 0
2 years ago
The probability of low demand is estimated to be 0.20. The after-tax net present value of the benefits from purchasing the two m
kondaur [170]

Answer:  a)The decision tree is attached as a document to this question.

b)$140000

Here is the complete question:

. A manager is trying to decide whether to buy one machine or two. If only one is purchased and demand proves to be excessive, the second machine can be purchased later. Some sales will be lost, however, because the lead time for purchasing this type of machine is 6 months. In addition, the cost per machine will be lower if both are purchased at the same time. The probability of low demand is estimated to be 0.20. The after-tax net present value of the benefits from purchasing the two machines together is $90,000 if demand is low and $180,000 if demand is high.

If one machine is purchased and demand is low, the net present value is $120,000. If demand is high, the manager has three options. Doing nothing has a net present value of $120,000; subcontracting, $160,000; and buying the second machines, $140,000.

a. Draw the decision tree for this problem.

b. Use the decision tree to determine how many machines the company should buy initially and give the expected payoff for this alternative.

Explanation:

Concepts and reason

The expected value of perfect information (EVPI)= EPPI - EP

(EPPI) =expected payoff with perfect information

(EP)= maximum expected payoff  computed under uncertainty.

Fundamentals

The expected payoff = P₁X₁ + P₂X₂ +....PnXn,

The formula for the expected payoff is, E(X) = ΣxΡ(x)

Suppose you have a set of corresponding probabilities for playing your pure strategies = Pn

where the probabilities must all be greater than or equal to zero and they all sum to one.

b) the values at node 4 = $120000, $140000 and $160000

EV =maximum(node4)

=max($120000, $140000 , $160000)

=$140000

expected payoff at node 4 = $140000

3 0
2 years ago
A performance rating error in which the rater tends to give employees either extremely high or extremely low ratings is referred
victus00 [196]
D. leniency is based on when somebody rates an employee too high. Strictness error is when somebody was rated very very low.
3 0
3 years ago
May, Inc. had the following transactions in 2019, its first year of operations: Issued 22,000 shares of common stock. The stock
tatuchka [14]

Answer:

The amount of paid-in capital        $

Common stocks (22,000 x $2)      44,000

Preferred stocks (1,800 x $120)     216,000

Amount of paid-in capital               260,000

The correct answer is C

Explanation:

The amount of paid-in capital is the total of paid-in capital of common stocks and paid-in capital of preferred stocks. The paid-in capital of each stock is computed as number of stock multiplied by par value of each stock.

6 0
3 years ago
Lupine Corporation uses a job-order costing system with a single plantwide predetermined overhead rate based on machine-hours. T
Anna [14]

Answer:

Allocated MOH= $420

Explanation:

<u>First, we need to calculate the predetermined overhead rate:</u>

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= (253,600/31,700) + 6

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $14 per machine hour

<u>Now, we can allocate overhead to Job L716:</u>

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 14*30

Allocated MOH= $420

5 0
3 years ago
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