Answer: $10.49
Explanation:
Net Asset Value is the equity of the portfolio divided by the number of shares outstanding.
Equity = Assets - Liabilities
So,
Net Asset Value = (Assets - Liabilities) / No. of shares outstanding
Assets = (200,000 * 35) + (300,000 * 40) + (400,000 * 20) + (600,000 * 25)
= $42,000,000
Liabilities will be the accrued management fee.
Net Asset Value = (42,000,000 - 30,000) / 4,000,000
= 10.4925
= $10.49
Answer:
0.76%
Explanation:
Firstly we write out the production function to be
Y = K^0.34L^0.42.
So if we have inputs that are increased by 1%, we will now have a new production function which is
Y = (K + 0.01 of K)^0.34 (L + 0.01 of L)^0.42
We write this in terms of growth rate
The Growth rate of Y = 0.34 x the growth rate of K + 0.42 x the growth rate of L
This gives us the Growth rate of Y = 0.34 x 1% + 0.42 x 1%
= 0.34+0.42
= 0.76%
I would say the third sentence. Proper planning and supervision is of utmost importance while catering to the client. I say this because the word diligence means, careful and persistent work or effort. This shows that the work is carefully planned. That's my opinion and not a fact so don't trust this unless my reasoning convinces you.
Answer:
9.69%
Explanation:
Given the following :
Net income = $4819
Total asset = $38,200
Taxable income = $6,100
Dividend payout ratio = 30% = 0.3
The internal growth rate is calculated thus ;
(Return on asset × Retention ratio)/[1-(Return on asset × Retention ratio)]
Return on asset = (Net income / total asset)
Return on asset = ($4,819 / $38,200)
Return on asset = 0.12615
Retention ratio = 1 - Dividend payout ratio
Retention ratio = 1 - 0.3 = 0.7
Hence internal growth rate :
(0.12615 × 0.7) / 1 - (0.12615 × 0.7)
0.088305 / 1 - 0.088305
0.088305 / 0.911695
= 0.0968580
= 0.0968580 × 100%
= 9.685%
= 9.69% ( 2 decimal places)
