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lys-0071 [83]
3 years ago
11

You have flipped a standard quarter 10 times and had four head and six tails come up. With that experience, what will be the cha

nces of you getting a heads on the next flip
Mathematics
1 answer:
olchik [2.2K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

1/2 or 0.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Your previous results don't change the probability of the next time.

You might be interested in
My brother is in 6th grade and needs help with his math. I tried to help but I can't find any answers on it.
In-s [12.5K]

Answer:

Question 1) 17.4

Question 2) 1.7

Question 3) 2.8

Question 4) 8.6

Step-by-step explanation:

Mean absolute deviation is the average distance between the data points from the set to the mean point of the data set. It shows the variability in data or how much the data points are spread.

method to calculate Mean absolute deviation:

a. calculate mean

b. calculate absolute deviation of each data point

c. add all the deviations

d. divide absolute deviation by number of points

mean absolute deviation = ∑lx_{i}-xl / n

The given problem has four sub-parts

Solution 1:

Mean= (78+99+90+80+55+56+102+88+60+42)/10

            =  750/10

            =  75

Mean absolute deviation= ( I 78-75 I + I 99-75 I+I 90-75 I + I 80-75 I +

                                             I 55-75 I + I 56-75 I + I 102-75 I + I 88- 75 I +

                                             I 60-75 I + I 42-75 I) /10

         =  (174)/10

        =  17.4

Solution 2:

Mean = (10+13+7+12+9+8+12+10+11+13)/10

              =  (105)/10

              = 10.5

Mean absolute deviation = ( I 10-10.5 I + I 13-10.5 I + I 7-10.5 I + I 12-10.5 I +

                                              I 9-10.5 I + I 8-10.5 I + I 12-10.5 I + I 10-10.5 I +

                                               I 11-10.5 I + I 3-10.5 I) /10

       =   17/10

       = 1.7

Solution 3:

Mean= (1+7+10+5+3+3+6+12+9+4)/10

            =  60/10

            =  6

Mean absolute deviation  = ( I 1-6 I + I 7-6 I + I 10-6 I + I 5-6 I + I 3-6 I +

                                               I 3-6 I + I 6-6 I + I 12- 6 I + I 9-6 I + I 4-6 I) /10

         = (28)/10

        =  2.8

Solution 4:

Mean= (30+46+25+45+18+25+15+32+40+24)/10

            =  300/10

            =  30

Mean absolute deviation  = ( I 30-30 I + I 46-30 I + I 25-30 I + I 45-30 I +

                                               I 18-30 I + I 25-30 I + I 15-30 I + I 32-30 I +

                                               I 40-30 I + I 24-30 I) /10

         = (86)/10

        =  8.6

!

8 0
3 years ago
Please help me I need this question done by tonight. The amount that a consultant charges for her work can be modeled using a li
nataly862011 [7]

Answer: The consultant earn $50 each hour.

Explanation:

It is given that for 4 hours of work, the consultant charges $400. For 5 hours of work, she charges $450. The amount that a consultant charges for her work can be modeled using a linear function.

If the linear function represents the amount earn by consultant in hours the the coordinates can be written as (4, 400) and (5, 450).

If we want to find how much money does the consultant earn each hour, so first we have to find the slope of linear function which passing through two points (4, 400) and (5, 450).

\text{Slope}=\frac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}

\text{Slope}=\frac{450-400}{5-4}

\text{Slope}=\frac{50}{1}

\text{Slope}=50

In the linear function the slope show the earning of consultant per hour, therefore consultant earn $50 each hour.

5 0
4 years ago
6/x-8=2/x+6 how do i solve this
lutik1710 [3]
6/(x-8)=2/(x+6)
times both sides by (x-8)(x+6)
6(x+6)=2(x-8)
distribute
6x+36=2x-16
minus 2x both sides
4x+36=-16
miinus 36 both sides
4x=-52
divide both sides by 4
x=-13
8 0
4 years ago
TROLLS WILL BE REPORTED. <br><br><br> please help. Image up top.
Nana76 [90]

Answer:

0

Step-by-step explanation:

The priced was decreased by $300. So it starts at -$300. Then additional features is $900. So it's now $600. But the dealer took -$600 off. So now it is $0 from the original price.

7 0
4 years ago
Draw a number line to divide 70 ÷5 =​
Lunna [17]

Answer:

14

Step-by-step explanation:

In 70/5 the dividend is 70 and the divisor is 5 .

First draw a number line from zero to the dividend.

Next, starting from 70 skip count by the divisor backwards till you reach 0.

The numbers of skips taken to reach zero is the result, also called, the quotient. In this case there are 14 skips .

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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