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asambeis [7]
2 years ago
8

Problem 1

Mathematics
2 answers:
Oksana_A [137]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

I'm thinking its a no because the money is odd every time Jayden adds $5

Step-by-step explanation:

timama [110]2 years ago
3 0

Jayden has \$11 and begins saving \$5 per week.

Aditi has \$60 and begins spending \$2 per week.

Have <u>x denote the number of weeks and y indicate the quantity each person has</u>. Therefore, according to the stated conditions, the maximum amount Jayden will have after x weeks will be,

\to y = 11+5x

Aditi will have y= 60-2x after x weeks. Therefore, the number of weeks in which they will each have the same amount will be calculated as,

11+5x=60-2x\\\\5x+2x=60-11\\\\7x=49\\\\x=\frac{49}{7}\\\\x=7

As a result, after 7 weeks, Lin and Diego will have the same amount, which is \$46.

Learn more:

brainly.com/question/11925965

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Suppose that each child born is equally likely to be a boy or a girl. Consider a family with exactly three children. Let BBG ind
Gemiola [76]

Answer:

(a)

S = \{GGG, GGB, GBG, GBB, BBG, BGB, BGG, BBB\}

(b)

i.

1\ girl = \{GBB, BBG, BGB\}

P(1\ girl) = 0.375

ii.

Atleast\ 2 \ girls = \{GGG, GGB, GBG, BGG\}

P(Atleast\ 2 \ girls) = 0.5

iii.

No\ girl = \{BBB\}

P(No\ girl) = 0.125

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

Children = 3

B = Boys

G = Girls

Solving (a): List all possible elements using set-roster notation.

The possible elements are:

S = \{GGG, GGB, GBG, GBB, BBG, BGB, BGG, BBB\}

And the number of elements are:

n(S) = 8

Solving (bi) Exactly 1 girl

From the list of possible elements, we have:

1\ girl = \{GBB, BBG, BGB\}

And the number of the list is;

n(1\ girl) = 3

The probability is calculated as;

P(1\ girl) = \frac{n(1\ girl)}{n(S)}

P(1\ girl) = \frac{3}{8}

P(1\ girl) = 0.375

Solving (bi) At least 2 are girls

From the list of possible elements, we have:

Atleast\ 2 \ girls = \{GGG, GGB, GBG, BGG\}

And the number of the list is;

n(Atleast\ 2 \ girls) = 4

The probability is calculated as;

P(Atleast\ 2 \ girls) = \frac{n(Atleast\ 2 \ girls)}{n(S)}

P(Atleast\ 2 \ girls) = \frac{4}{8}

P(Atleast\ 2 \ girls) = 0.5

Solving (biii) No girl

From the list of possible elements, we have:

No\ girl = \{BBB\}

And the number of the list is;

n(No\ girl) = 1

The probability is calculated as;

P(No\ girl) = \frac{n(No\ girl)}{n(S)}

P(No\ girl) = \frac{1}{8}

P(No\ girl) = 0.125

7 0
3 years ago
If a number id divided by eleven, the solution is two-fifths. What is the number
miss Akunina [59]
The answer is 4 and four-fifths.
8 0
3 years ago
Is (x +1) a factor of <br> f(x) = x3 + 2x2 −5x − 6 ?<br><br> Yes <br> No
sertanlavr [38]

Answer:

Yes.

Step-by-step explanation:

You can find it out by factoring but ill do it easier way.

(x + 1 ) = 0 put the first and second equation to 0

x = -1

x³ + 2x² - 5x - 6 = 0  Now plug in the x in the equation

(-1)³ + 2(-1)² - 5(-1) - 6 = 0

0 = 0

so (x + 1) is a factor.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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