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3 years ago

The longest spin of a basketball on one finger is 255 minutes.about how many hours is that

Mathematics

1 answer:

lidiya [134]3 years ago

4 0

The longest spin of a basketball on one finger is 255 minutes or 4.25 hours.

Step-by-step explanation:

the longest spin of a basketball on one finger is 255 minutes.

We need to find how many hours is that.

So, we need to convert 255 minutes into hours.

We know that,

60 minutes = 1 hour

Using Unitary method:

60 minutes = 1 hour

1 minute = 1/60 hour

255 minutes = 1/60 * 255 hour

255 minutes = 255/60 hour = 4.25 hour

255 minutes is 4.25 hour.

So, The longest spin of a basketball on one finger is 255 minutes or 4.25 hours.

Keywords: Convert Minutes to Hour

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You order from a catalog the following office supplies: 10 boxes of paper, each box is 6 pounds and 36 boxes of pens, each box w

babymother [125]

$40.50 10 boxes at 6lbs = 60lbs

36 boxes at 12 ounces = 432 ounces dived by 16(16 oz in a lbs)= 27 lbs

60 lbs plus 27 lbs = 87 lbs total weight

87lbs - 20lbs($12)= 67lbs - 30 lbs($10)= 37lbs x .50($.50 per pound)= $18.50

$12+$10+$18.50= $40.50

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3 years ago

Dans un magasin de sport, une paire de chaussures coûte 69,30 €, après une remise de 30 %. Quel était le prix initial (avant la

galben [10]

Answer:

€99

Step-by-step explanation:

The computation of the original price (before the rebate) of this pair of shoes is shown below:

Given that

The cost of pair of shoes is € 69.30 i.e. after 30% discount

So, the original price would be

= € 69.30 × 100 ÷ 0.70

= €99

The € 69.30 shows the 70% value according to this we determine 100% value

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2 years ago

A=1/2bh. A=200ft. H=10. What is b

Svetllana [295]

Answer:

B= $\frac{2A}{H}$

Step-by-step explanation:

If you noticed, A= $\frac{1}{2}$ BH is the formula for finding the area for a triangle. Your goal is to get B by it's self. Your first step will be to clear of the fraction first, so you will multiply both sides by 2. 2(A)=2( $\frac{1}{2}$ BH). On the left, you have 2×A= On the right side, you have 2( $\frac{1}{2}$ BH), but since you have a number in the equation, you will only use 2× $\frac{1}{2}$ . To solve 2× $\frac{1}{2}$ , you will cnacel out both 2's and you have 1. 1×BH will still equal BH, so you are now left will B×H.

(Your new equation looks like this by the way). 2A=BH

Since you need to get B by its self, the way to clear the H away from the B is by dividing. You will now divide the B and H aswell as 2A and H. (It will look like this) $\frac{2A}{H} = \frac{BxH}{H}$ . (Again when you have the same number or letter, you cross it out. When you divide, you won't change anything on the left side, and all you have to do on the right id to cross out the H next to the B and cross out the H on the bottom of the equation). You should be left with $\frac{2A}{H}$ = B. Now you can turn it around for your final answer. B= $\frac{2A}{H}$ .

Please let me know if i helped, how I did, and if you have any questions.

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3 years ago

Triangle ABC is translated according to the rule (x, y) → (x + 2, y – 8). If the coordinates of the pre-image of point B are

yuradex [85]

Ans: (6,-13)

Rationale:

Simply take your pre-image (point before applying transformation) of point B (4,-5) and apply the transformation to each point. Therefore, (x,y) = (4+2,-5-8) = (6,-13)

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A rhombus has four 6-inch sides and two 120-degree angles. From one of the vertices of the obtuse angles, the two latitudes are

nikitadnepr [17]

Answer:

Area(A)=Area(C)= $9 in^{2}$

Area(B)= $13.2 in^{2}$

Step-by-step explanation:

We begin with finding the angles a and b that from the drawing attached you can see that a=b.

Now, the sum of the internal angles of a rhomboid is equal to 360 degrees, with that we have:

120+120+a+b=360

240+2a=360

2a=120

a=60=b

Next, in the image you can see that the lines coming from the angle at the top 120 degrees vertex, divide the opposite sides by half, thus making two triangles with one side of 6 in and another of 3 in.

We can say from the drawing as well:

Area(A)+Area(B)+Area(C)=Area(rhomboid)

But, we can also say that Area(A)=Area(C)

So, starting with Area(A)

Area(A)=Area(triangle)= $\frac{b*h}{2}$ = $\frac{6*3}{2}$ = $9 in^{2}$

We can then calculate the area B, a rhomboid, or better, take the Total area of the figure and subtract the area of the two triangles.

Area(B)=Area(rhomboid)-Area(A)-Area(C)

Area(rhomboid)=b*h where b=6in and h is the perpendicular distance from the base to the top.

$h=[tex]6*cos(30)=5.20in$ The 30 degrees come from: 120-30-60=30, since the latitudes split the 120 angle in two equal parts and one that is the half of the obtuse angle.

Area(rhomboid)=5.20*6= $31.2 in^{2}$

Area(B)=Area(rhomboid)-Area(A)-Area(C)= $31.2 in^{2}$ - $9 in^{2}$ - $9 in^{2}$ = $13.2 in^{2}$

3 0

3 years ago