Answer:
So the answer will be 2 2/4
Step-by-step explanation:
If you need me to explain more please tell me.Hope it helps.
Answer: c) All of the above
Step-by-step explanation:
a) X=the number of color-blind males of the randomly chosen 20 individuals
Thus, X is binomial with n = 20 and p = 0.08.
Y represents the number of color-blind females of the randomly chosen 40 individuals
Thus, Y is also binomial with n = 40 and p = 0.01.
b) However, Z represents the total number of color-blind which is 60. The probability of being color-blind is not equal among all individuals as it is for X (0.08) and Y (0.09). Thus, Z is not binomial.
In conclusion both a and b are correct, which gives the correct answer number c) all of the above.
Answer: the first 3 are 20, 5, 43. I dont know the others though
A
2,000×(1+0.085×10)
=3,700
B
2,000×(1+0.08)^(10)
=4,317.85
Bank B is the better investment. In 10 years, her $2,000 will grow to $4,317.85, and with bank A, her $2,000 will grow to $3,700
Answer:
C
Step-by-step explanation:
Just divide by 4
