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AURORKA [14]
3 years ago
12

Bald Eagle, Inc., had the following transactions for the year ended December 31, Year 7. Select from the options list provided t

he best classification for each activity. Each choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Cash Flow Classification

1. Purchased equipment for $30,000
2. Sold available-for-sale securities for $7,000
3. Paid income taxes of $40,000
4. Issued 40,000 shares of common stock, $2.50 par
5. Paid $2,000 interest
6. Paid $10,000 cash dividends to shareholders
7. Received $1,500 interest
8. Sold land for $17,000
9. Paid $7,000 to vendors for inventory
Business
1 answer:
Sladkaya [172]3 years ago
7 0

The best classification of each transaction and activity of Bald Eagle, Inc. for the year ended December 31, Year 7 is as follows:

Cash Flow                                                                      Classification

1. Equipment Purchase $30,000                                 Investing Activity

2. Sale of available-for-sale securities $7,000           Investing Activity

3. Payment of income taxes $40,000                        Operating Activity

4. Issuance of 40,000 shares at $2.50 par                Financing Activity

5. Payment of interest $2,000                                    Operating Activity

6. Dividend payment $10,000                                    Financing Activity

7. Received $1,500 interest                                        Operating Activity

8. Sold land for $17,000                                              Investing Activity

9. Payment of $7,000 to vendors for inventory        Operating Activity

<h3>What are cash flow activities?</h3>

Cash flow activities that affect the Cash Flow Statement include:

  • Operating Activity
  • Investing Activity
  • Financing Activity.

<h3>Options List:</h3>

Operating Activity

Investing Activity

Financing Activity

Depends on nature and purpose

Not reported on Bald Eagle's Statement of Cash Flows

Thus, the correct classification of the cash flow activities has been done.

Learn more about cash flow statement at brainly.com/question/735261

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Answer:

Increase quantity to where AC = MC = D=AR=MR

Explanation:

A perfectly competitive market is where there are many firms in the industry producing homogeneous products. There is ease of entry and exit into and out of the market. They are price takers and earn normal profits in the long-run. In order to maximize profits, a firm in a perfectly competitive industry should produce an the quantity where its average cost is equal to marginal cost when AR = MR = D. In other words, when the AC and MC curves intersect with AR = MR = D curve.

<em><u>Please refer diagram</u></em>

The firm is currently producing at a point where AC > MC at quantity 1000. In order to reach AC = MC, the firm has to increase its quantity to Qe. As it increases quantity, although marginal cost increases, average cost falls because now fixed costs are spread over a larger quantity of output.

At Qe, the three curves intersect and is the point where this firm can maximize its revenue (Price = Pe). At a price higher than this, it would lose customers since there are many others producing the same product and customers can easily shift to another.

7 0
3 years ago
Anna began with a balance of $86.54 in her checking account this month. she deposited $275.88 and wrote checks for $123.70, $66.
WINSTONCH [101]

your answer is $198.78 dollars

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Multiple Choice Is an outflow of cash from the use of a plant asset. Is applied to land. Measures the decline in market value of
azamat

Answer:

Is the process of allocating to expense the cost of plant asset.

Explanation:

Depreciation is an expense indicating a decline in the value of the capital assets due to tear and wear, obsolescence, consumption, time span, etc. It's shown on the income statement debit side. It is a non-cash item which has no effect on the cash balance.

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3 years ago
An investment will pay $100 at the end of each of the next 3 years, $200 at the end of Year 4, $300 at the end of Year 5, and $6
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Answer:

present value $ 1,026.16

future value  $ 1,539.98

Explanation:

Present Value = $ 100 * 1/(1.07) ^ 1 + $ 100 * 1/(1.07) ^ 2 +$ 100 * 1/(1.07) ^3 + $ 200 * 1/(1.07) ^4 + $ 300 * 1/(1.07) ^5 +$ 600 * 1/(1.07) ^6

=93.45+ 87.34+81.62+152.20+213.23+398.32

= $ 1,026.16

therefore,  the correct value  is $ 1,026.16

b. Future Value = Present Value * ( 1+ Rate of Interest ) ^ Time

= $ 1,175.63 * ( 1+0.07) ^ 6

= $ 1,539.98

Hence the correct answer is $ 1,539.98

5 0
3 years ago
Your boss leaves you a note, asking you to determine the present value of a $1,200,000 payment to be made in six years assuming
shtirl [24]

Answer:

so value of the mistake is $311685.71

Explanation:

given data

present value = $1,200,000

time = 6 year

discount rate = 18%

discount rate = 8%

to find out

What is the dollar value of the mistake

solution

we get here present value that is express as for both rate that is

present value = \frac{FV}{(1+r)^t}

put here value

present value =  \frac{1200000}{(1+0.18)^6}

present value 1 = $444517.85

and

present value =  \frac{1200000}{(1+0.08)^6}

present value 2 = $756203.55

so

difference is $756203.55 - $444517.85

difference is = $311685.71

so value of the mistake is $311685.71

7 0
3 years ago
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