All categories

3 years ago

2 dived 1/3 pls helpppppppppppppp

Mathematics

2 answers:

Advocard [28]3 years ago

6 0

2 / 1/3
You can multiply with the reciprocal
2 x 3/1
= 6
The solution is 6
Hope this helps!

lozanna [386]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Use reciprocals

$\frac{2}{1}$ × $\frac{3}{1}$ = $\frac{6}{1}$ = 6

You might be interested in

Solve {-20-5x}-70=-40

Artemon [7]

Answer:

x = -10

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0

3 years ago

How can you use 4x7 to find 8x7?

max2010maxim [7]

4 x 7 is 28, and 8 x 7 is 56. You can use 4 x 7 to find 8 x 7 by multiplying that first and doubling that quotient.

Half of 56 is 28, therefore doubling that allows us to find the quotient of 8 x 7.

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

304,056 trying to represent the value of this number using expanded notation we give the answer but is giving us an error so we

Rina8888 [55]

Answer:

(3 * 100,000) + (0 * 10,000) + (4 * 1000) + (0 * 100) + (5 * 10) + (6 * 1)

Step-by-step explanation:

We want to represent the value of this number using expanded notation

Mathematically, that will be;

(3 * 100,000) + (0 * 10,000) + (4 * 1000) + (0 * 100) + (5 * 10) + (6 * 1)

= 300,000 + 0 + 4000 + 0 + 50 + 6

= 304,057

7 0

3 years ago

Madison enjoys the game of golf. He knows that he will one-putt a green 15% of the time, two-putt 20% of the time, three-putt 35

scoundrel [369]

Answer:

The formula to calculate standard deviation from probability is \sqrt(n*p*(1-p)). n is the sample size, and 200 in this case (number of putts for practice). p is 80% or 0.8, the probability that he can make it. So the standard deviation is \sqrt(200*0.8*(1-0.8)=\sqrt(200*0.8*0.2)=\sqrt(16)=4.

6 0

3 years ago

A 5-card hand is dealt from a perfectly shuffled deck. Define the events: A: the hand is a four of a kind (all four cards of one

TiliK225 [7]

In a hand of 5 cards, you want 4 of them to be of the same rank, and the fifth can be any of the remaining 48 cards. So if the rank of the 4-of-a-kind is fixed, there are $\binom44\binom{48}1=48$ possible hands. To account for any choice of rank, we choose 1 of the 13 possible ranks and multiply this count by $\binom{13}1=13$ . So there are 624 possible hands containing a 4-of-a-kind. Hence A occurs with probability

$\dfrac{\binom{13}1\binom44\binom{48}1}{\binom{52}5}=\dfrac{624}{2,598,960}\approx0.00024$

There are 4 aces in the deck. If exactly 1 occurs in the hand, the remaining 4 cards can be any of the remaining 48 non-ace cards, contributing $\binom41\binom{48}4=778,320$ possible hands. Exactly 2 aces are drawn in $\binom42\binom{48}3=103,776$ hands. And so on. This gives a total of

$\displaystyle\sum_{a=1}^4\binom4a\binom{48}{5-a}=886,656$

possible hands containing at least 1 ace, and hence B occurs with probability

$\dfrac{\sum\limits_{a=1}^4\binom4a\binom{48}{5-a}}{\binom{52}5}=\dfrac{18,472}{54,145}\approx0.3412$

The product of these probability is approximately 0.000082.

A and B are independent if the probability of both events occurring simultaneously is the same as the above probability, i.e. $P(A\cap B)=P(A)P(B)$ . This happens if

the hand has 4 aces and 1 non-ace, or
the hand has a non-ace 4-of-a-kind and 1 ace

The above "sub-events" are mutually exclusive and share no overlap. There are 48 possible non-aces to choose from, so the first sub-event consists of 48 possible hands. There are 12 non-ace 4-of-a-kinds and 4 choices of ace for the fifth card, so the second sub-event has a total of 12*4 = 48 possible hands. So $A\cap B$ consists of 96 possible hands, which occurs with probability

$\dfrac{96}{\binom{52}5}\approx0.0000369$

and so the events A and B are NOT independent.

4 0

3 years ago