Answer:
a. Custodial fund
Explanation:
Custodial transaction and fund refers to the transaction, in which there is a beneficiary and a responsible. The responsible person manages the transactions of custodial account, and takes proper care of return and investment on such account.
This is basically an agency service as the person who is beneficiary is just depositing the amount top be invested which is then taken care of as an agent.
The correct option is a.
Custodial Fund.
Answer:
$0 because an agreement to accept different performance in lieu of full payment of liquidated debt is binding.
Explanation:
Since there is an agreement between Amy, a baker, and her brother, she owes him $0.
At first, Amy gets a loan of $3,000 from her brother to pay for her dream home. She agrees to pay him back in one year, and that agreement was binding. During the time to pay back the loan, Amy offers to bake her brother's wedding cake instead of paying back the loan and her brother accepts. This has presented a new agreement that overrules the previous agreement. Now instead of paying back the $3,000, she would bake a wedding cake for him. This implies that the wedding cake is equal to $3,000.
Therefore, she owes him $0.
Answer:
The expected return on a portfolio is 14.30%
Explanation:
CAPM : It is used to described the risk of various types of securities which is invested to get a better return. Mainly it is deals in financial assets.
For computing the expected rate of return of a portfolio , the following formula is used which is shown below:
Under the Capital Asset Pricing Model, The expected rate of return is equals to
= Risk free rate + Beta × (Market portfolio risk of return - risk free rate)
= 8% + 0.7 × (17% - 8%)
= 8% + 0.7 × 9%
= 8% + 6.3%
= 14.30%
The risk free rate is also known as zero beta portfolio so we use the value in risk free rate also.
Hence, the expected return on a portfolio is 14.30%
Answer:
6.53%
Explanation:
For computing the after cost of debt we need to use the RATE formula i.e to be shown in attached spreadsheet. Kindly find it below:
Given that,
Present value = $1,050.76
Future value or Face value = $1,000
PMT = 1,000 × 10% = $100
NPER = 5 years
The formula is shown below:
= Rate(NPER;PMT;-PV;FV;type)
The present value come in negative
So, after applying this above formula
1. The pretax cost of debt is 8.70
2. And, the after tax cost of debt would be
= Pretax cost of debt × ( 1 - tax rate)
= 8.70% × ( 1 - 0.25)
= 6.53%
Answer:
d. 8.2%
Explanation:
The computation of the WACC is shown below:
= Weightage of debt × cost of debt × ( 1- tax rate) + (Weightage of common stock) × (cost of common stock)
where,
Weighted of debt = Debt ÷ total firm
= (0.60 ÷ 1.60)
= 0.375
And, the weighted of common stock = (Common stock ÷ total firm)
= 1 ÷ 1.60
= 0.625
The total firm is
= 0.60 + 1
= 1.60
Now put these values to the above formula
So, the value would equal to
= (0.375 × 8%) × ( 1 - 35%) + (0.625 × 10%)
= 1.95% + 6.25%
= 8.20%
