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Alecsey [184]
2 years ago
7

In square GEOM, the coordinates of G are (-3, 2) and the coordinates of O are (1, -2). Determine and state the coordinates of ve

rtices E and M.
Mathematics
1 answer:
Inessa [10]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

E is (1, 2) and M is (-3,-2),

Step-by-step explanation:

G and O are diagonally opposite points.

E is the image of O in the x axis and M is the image of G in the x axis.

E which is adjacent to M and  will have y-coordinate of 2 and x -coordinate 1.

M  will have x coordinate same as G which is -3 and y coordinate is -2.

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Subtract One-half from both sides of the equation.

Divide both sides by 6/7

Multiply both sides by 7/6

Step-by-step explanation:

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If you are dealt 3 cards from a shuffled deck of 52​ cards, find the probability that all 3 cards are queens.
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3 years ago
3x^2+42x+105=0 Find the solution<br><br>  <br>  <br> 0<br> 0
Nina [5.8K]

Step-by-step explanation:

I think we have to find the factors so

3x2 + 42x + 105

First we will multiply 105 by 3 = 315 then find factors of 315 which may add or subtract = 42

So 45 and 7

3x2 + 45x - 7x + 105

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There is a problem please recheck the question

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3 years ago
Software filters rely heavily on ""blacklists"" (lists of known ""phishing"" URLs) to detect fraudulent e-mails. But such filter
crimeas [40]

Answer:

a) X \sim Binom(n=16, p=0.2)  

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

The expected value is given by this formula:

E(X) = np=16*0.2=3.2

b) P(X=0)=(16C0)(0.2)^{0} (1-0.2)^{16-0}=0.02815

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts  

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".  

Part a

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:  

X \sim Binom(n=16, p=0.2)  

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

The expected value is given by this formula:

E(X) = np=16*0.2=3.2

Part b

For this case we want this probability:

P(X=0)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

And using this function we got:

P(X=0)=(16C0)(0.2)^{0} (1-0.2)^{16-0}=0.02815

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Helppppp pleaseeee c: for brainliest
Alina [70]

Answer:

I have no idea how to answer this... :P

<3

Sorry, I am quite a dummy.

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