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HACTEHA [7]
2 years ago
15

After WWI, in what way was Europe bound to the U.S?

History
1 answer:
DedPeter [7]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

It's d

Explanation:

Trust me it is xxcx

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An aristocrat would give vassals land in an agreement in which the vassals would then give to the lord.
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Answer: The statement here is absolutely correct.


Explanation: In order to understand that why this answer is correct, I will provide you with a little insight of the history. The term vassal originated with the emergence of feudalism in the middle ages, at that time all the land was the possession of the ruling Aristocrat. The Aristocrat will reward their lands to vassals expecting that they will protect the Aristocrat in return. Whenever, some vassal will fight for the Aristocrat, the Aristocrat will provide him with a land and expect him to protect the the Aristocrat for rest of his life.

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Analyze the cultural and economic responses of the British, French, and Spanish to the Indians of North America before 1750.
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The French were in terms of friendly with the Natives Indians. Their main occupations in America was for trade with the Natives and to forge an alliance. Both respected each other religion with a peaceful convert.

The British response to the Native Indians, not friendly like the French, the westward expansion led in revolts and war between them. Southern colonies regularly attacked Indians on the frontier. Much of the Indians land was taken away by the colonists. Culturally Indians were considered to be wild and not allowed to mix up with the colonies.

The Spanish response to the Indians was harsh and brutal. The Spanish Conquistadors robed the resources from the land and opened mines and trading system to gain wealth and forced the Natives to work in mines and fields. Culturally it was more favored with intermarriages between the Native and Spaniard led in the new ethnic group called mestizos.

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