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TEA [102]
2 years ago
10

How are safety and cost affected by the use of informatics at the point of care? Give two to three specific examples.

Business
1 answer:
Alexus [3.1K]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

1) slow drive the the ..

2) Help always poor..

3) Respect your teacher's and parents

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CIRP. Jason Smith is a foreign exchange trader with Citibank. He notices the following quotes. Spot exchange rate SFr1.6627/$ Si
Zinaida [17]

Answer:

Answer explained below

Explanation:

A.

For six months, rSFr => 1.50% and r$ => 1.75%.

Since the exchange rate is in SFr/$ terms, the appropriate expression for the interest rate parity relation is

F/S => [ (1 +  rSFr ) / ( 1 + r$) ]

then we can also say

F/S *( 1 + r$) => (1 +  rSFr )

Now Left side => F/S *( 1 + r$) => [ ( 1 + 6.558) / ( + 1.6627) ] * (1 +0.0175)

Left side => 1.0133

and Right side =>  (1 +  rSFr ) => 1.0150

Since the left and right sides are not equal, IRP is not holding.

B and C.

Since IRP is not holding, there is an arbitrage possibility.

As 1.0133 < 1.0150,

we can say that the EuroSFr quote is more than what it should be as per the quotes for the other three variables. And, we can also say that the Euro$ quote is less than what it should be as per the quotes for the other three variables. Therefore, the arbitrage strategy should be based on borrowing in the Euro$ market and lending in the SFr market. The steps are as as follows. -

Borrow $1000000 for six-months at 3.5% per year and then we will pay back

=> $1000000 * (1 + 0.0175) => $1,017,500 six months later.

Convert $1000000 to SFr at the spot rate to get SFr 1662700.

Lend SFr 1662700 for six-months at 3% per year. Will get back

=> SFr1662700 * (1 + 0.0150) => SFr 1,687,641 six months later.

Sell SFr 1687641 six months forward. The transaction will be contracted as of the current date but delivery and settlement will only take place six months later. So, sixmonths later exchange

SFr 1,687,641 for => SFr 1687641 ⁄ SFr 1.6558/$ => $1,019,230.

The arbitrage profit six months later is 1019230 - 1017500 = $1,730

6 0
3 years ago
Tyler Tooling Company uses a job order cost system with overhead applied to products on the basis of machine hours. For the upco
inessss [21]

Answer:

<u>Over Applied Overhead      = $ 4000</u>

Actual Manufacturing Overhead = $45,000

Manufacturing Overhead Applied = $ 49,000

Explanation:

                                          Job 101        Job 102        Job 103

Total Direct materials      $ 19,200     $ 14,400       $ 9,600       $ 43,200

Direct labor                    $ 28,800       $ 11,200        $ 9,600      $ 49,600

Machine hours              1,000 hrs        4,000 hrs      2,000 hrs   7,000 hours

<u>Manufacturing overhead   $ 7000       $ 28,000      14,000 </u>

<u>Total                                $ 55,000         53,600        33,200</u>

Actual overhead costs recorded during the first month of operations totaled $45,000.

<u>Journal Entries </u>

<u>Sr. No                    Particulars                 Debit                   Credit</u>

Job 102              Finished Goods           53,600

                           Work In Process                                     53,600

A journal entry showing the transfer of Job 102 into Finished Goods Inventory upon its completion.

Job 101                Sales                         60,000

                        Cost Of Goods Sold                              60,000

Journal entries to recognize the sales revenue and cost of goods sold for Job 101.

Job 101              Cost of Goods Sold        55,000

                          Finished Goods Inventory                  55,000

Manufacturing Overhead Applied =   $ 7000 + $ 28,000+14,000 = $ 49,000

Job 101 = 1000/60,000 * $ 420,000= $ 7000

Job 102 = 4000/60,000 * $ 420,000= $ 28000

Job 103 = 2000/60,000 * $ 420,000= $ 14000

Actual Manufacturing Overhead = $45,000

<u>Over Applied Overhead      = $ 4000</u>

                                   

      Manufacturing Overhead  Accounts $ 4000  debit                  

              Cost of Goods Sold          $ 4000 Credit

Entry to transfer the balance of the Manufacturing Overhead account to Cost of Goods Sold.

(Entry to reduce the amount of Over applied Overhead)                                

                         

6 0
3 years ago
In a college-level course, Mrs. Smith gives the lectures, sets the due dates, and is the expert on the material. Mr. Doe helps g
andre [41]

The Code of Hammurabi was one of the earliest and most complete written legal codes, proclaimed by the Babylonian king Hammurabi, who reigned from 1792 to 1750 B.C. Hammurabi expanded the city-state of Babylon along the Euphrates River to unite all of southern Mesopotamia. The Hammurabi code of laws, a collection of 282 rules, established standards for commercial interactions and set fines and punishments to meet the requirements of justice. Hammurabi’s Code was carved onto a massive, finger-shaped black stone stele (pillar) that was looted by invaders and finally rediscovered in 1901.

5 0
2 years ago
When job demands are so great that the worker feels an inability to cope, this is known as role
Lena [83]

When job demands are so great that the worker feels the inability to cope, this is known as Role Overload

<h3>What is Role Overload?</h3>

Generally, The sense that one's personal resources are being stretched too thin in order to meet the requirements of their job function is one kind of particular stressor known as "role overload" (Eatough et al., 2011).

As a consequence of this, role overload has the potential to result in resource depletion, which is a situation that may be comprehended via the lens of COR.

Read more about Role Overload

brainly.com/question/18829873

#SPJ1

4 0
1 year ago
Assume a European company that manufactures decorative fountain pens. The firm is trying to decide whether or not to expand its
Wittaler [7]

Answer:

(a)

TC(q) [before expansion] = Fixed Cost + Variable Cost

                                              = 750,000 + 1.25q

TC(q) [after expansion] = (750,000 + 350,000) + 0.75q

                                      = 1,100,000 + 0.75q

(b)  (i) q = 600,000

TC(q) [before expansion] = 750,000 + (1.25 × 600,000)

                                          = 750,000 + 750,000

                                          = 1,500,000

TC(q) [after expansion] = 1,100,000 + (0.75 × 600,000)

                                      = 1,100,000 + 450,000

                                      = 1,550,000

Since expansion will increase total cost, profit will fall ceteris paribus. So firm should not expand.

(ii) q = 800,000

TC(q) [before expansion] = 750,000 + 1.25 × 800,000

                                          = 750,000 + 1,000,000

                                           = 1,750,000

TC(q) [after expansion] = 1,100,000 + (0.75 × 800,000)

                                      = 1,100,000 + 600,000

                                      = 1,700,000

Since expansion will decrease total cost, profit will rise ceteris paribus. So firm should expand.

7 0
3 years ago
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