Company A-> charges $75 and unlimited millage.
Company B-> initial fee $55 and charges +$0.8 for every mile driven.
The inequality that represents for what millage will company A charges less than company B is:
Let m be the number of miles
[tex]\begin{gathered} 75<55+0.8m \\ 75-55<0.8m \\ 20<0.8m \\ \frac{20}{0.8}For 25 miles company A will charge less than company B.
<span>{(1, 16), (2, 64), (3, 144), (4, 256), (5, 400)} Hope this helps </span>
Answer:
I would say the answer is 40 cookies
Step-by-step explanation:
The reason I say this is because if you write out the amount of cookies she can make with 6 cups of flour, you would get 30/6. 30 and 6 are both divisible by 6, so if you divided both by 6 you will get 5/1. 1 times 8 is 8, so if you multiply 5 by 8 you will get 40 cookies.
Hope this helped!
Answer:
x = -3/10
Step-by-step explanation:
Solve for x by substituting y = 3x into the other equation:
2x - 4y = 3
2x - 4(3x) = 3
Simplify and solve for x:
2x - 12x = 3
-10x = 3
x = -3/10
So, x = -3/10