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andrezito [222]
3 years ago
10

The data given below are from the accounting records of the Kuhn Corporation:

Business
1 answer:
charle [14.2K]3 years ago
3 0

The net cash provided by operating activities using the indirect method would be:  c. $50,000.

Net Cash From Operating Activities

Net income $45,000

Depreciation expense $9,000

Decrease in accounts payable ($2,500)

Decrease in inventory $3,000

Increase in accounts receivable ($4,500)

Net cash provided by operating activities $50,000

Inconclusion the net cash provided by operating activities using the indirect method would be: c. $50,000.

Learn more about operating activities here:brainly.com/question/25530656

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Brown Co. pays weekly salaries of $10,500 on Friday for a five-day workweek ending on that day. Assuming the end of the accounti
ra1l [238]

Answer:

c.credit to Wages Payable for $6,300.

Explanation:

The journal entry to record the wages expense is shown below;

Wages expense dr ($10,500 × 3 ÷ 5) $6,300

      To Wages payable $6,300

(being the wages expense is recorded)

Here the wages expense is debited as it increased the expense and credited the wages payable as it increased the liabilities

8 0
3 years ago
A bond has a par value of $1,000, a time to maturity of 15 years, and a coupon rate of 7.90% with interest paid annually. If the
Effectus [21]

Answer:

$5.97

Explanation:

In order to determine the capital gain of the bond in a year's time,it is first first of all important to calculate the yield to maturity on the bond which is arrived at by applying the rate formula in excel as follows:

=rate(nper,pmt,-pv,fv)

nper is the number of coupon interest the bond would pay over its entire life of 15 years which is 15

pmt is the annual interest,7.9%*$1000=$79

pv is the current market price of the bond which is $790

fv is the value of $1000

=rate(15,79,-790,1000)=10.79%

Afterwards,the price of the bond in one year' time can then be calculated:

=-pv(rate,nper,pmt,fv)

The variables in the formula are as above except for nper which would reduce by 1 in a year's time

=-pv(10.79%,14,79,1000)

pv=$ 795.97  

Hence the capital gain=price now-price one year ago/price one year ago

price now is $795.97  

price one year ago was $790

Capital gain=$795.97-$790=$5.97

Capital gain %= ($795.97-$790)/$790=0.76%

8 0
3 years ago
When the real exchange rate decreases, a country's net exports will __________?
Mrac [35]
Decrease is the answer
5 0
3 years ago
Fama’s Llamas has a WACC of 9.7 percent. The company’s cost of equity is 12 percent, and its pretax cost of debt is 7.5 percent.
Bezzdna [24]

Answer:

0.4766

Explanation:

Given:

WACC = 9.7%

Company’s cost of equity = 12%

Pretax cost of debt = 7.5%

Tax rate = 35%

Now,

WACC

=  Weight × Cost of equity + (1 - weight) × Pretax cost of debt × (1-tax rate)

or

0.097 = weight × 0.12 + ( 1 - weight ) × 0.075 × (1 - 0.35)

or

0.097 = 0.12 × weight + 0.04875 - 0.04875 × weight

or

0.04825 = 0.07125 × weight

or

weight = 0.6772

also,

weight = \frac{\textup{Equity}}{\textup{Debt + Equity}}

or

\frac{\textup{1}}{\textup{weight}}  = \frac{\textup{Debt+equity}}{\textup{Equity}}

or

\frac{1}{0.6772} = \frac{\textup{Debt}}{\textup{Equity}}  + 1

or

1.4766 = \frac{\textup{Debt}}{\textup{Equity}}  + 1

or

\frac{\textup{Debt}}{\textup{Equity}}  = 0.4766

5 0
4 years ago
Problem 6-3 Future Value and Multiple Cash Flows [LO1] Fuente, Inc., has identified an investment project with the following cas
Vikki [24]

Answer:

Year 1 = $1,100

Year 2 = $1,330

Year 3 = $1,550

Year 4 = $2,290

(a) If the discount rate is 6 percent, then the future value of these cash flows in Year 4:

To solve this problem, we must find the FV of each cash flow and add them. To find the FV of a lump sum, we use:

FV=P(1+r)^{t}

FV=1,100(1.06)^{3} +1,330(1.06)^{2} +1,550(1.06)+2,290

= $6737.51

(b)  If the discount rate is 14 percent, then the future value of these cash flows in Year 4:

FV=1,100(1.14)^{3} +1,330(1.14)^{2} +1,550(1.14)+2,290

= $7415.17

(c) If the discount rate is 21 percent, then the future value of these cash flows in Year 4:

FV=1,100(1.21)^{3} +1,330(1.21)^{2} +1,550(1.21)+2,290

= $8061.47

8 0
3 years ago
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