The point of inflection is calculated by equating the second derivative to zero and determining x from there.
f"(x) = -x²2xsinx² + cosx²(2x) = 0
2xcosx² - 2x³sinx² = 0
2x (cosx² - xsinx²) = 0
2x = 0 ⇒ x = 0
cosx² - xsinx² = 0 ⇒ x = 3.82 (if you use shift+solve in your scientific calculator)
Thus, the function only has 1 point of inflection and it is at x = 0.
Answer:
By AA similarity
Step-by-step explanation:
We have been given that ABCD is a parallelogram
So, by the property of parallelogram AB ||CD and FD is cutting the line BC
Hence, FD is transverse line. In transverse line alternate angles are equal.
Therefore, ∠AFD=∠EDC (alternate interior angles)
And ∠FAD=∠ECD (opposite angles in parallelogram)
Therefore, by AA similarity △ADF∼△CDE
Answer:
942
Step-by-step explanation:
I used the clculater
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
<u>Let's factor the trinomial:</u>
- x² + 14x + 40 =
- x² + 4x + 10x + 40 =
- x(x + 4) + 10(x + 4) =
- (x + 4)(x + 10)
x + 4 is between the answer options
Correct option is D.
