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Andreyy89
3 years ago
14

The second step to dividing 3 into 1/2

Mathematics
1 answer:
kolbaska11 [484]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Change the sign

Step-by-step explanation:

Asumming you are talking about the keep change flip method for dividing fraction, you would 1) keep 3/1, 2) flip the / symbol into * and 3) flip the 2nd fraction

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Factor the polynomial completely.
Mrrafil [7]

Answer:

The factors of the polynomial: (b⁴ - 2)(b² - 3)

Step-by-step explanation:

The given polynomial is: $ \textbf{b}^{\textbf{6}} \textbf{-3b}^{\textbf{4}} \textbf{-2b}^{\textbf{2}} \textbf{+ 6} $

We can factor the given polynomial by grouping.

We get: $ \{ b^6 - 3b^4\} + \{2b^2 + 6\} $

$ = b^4 (b^2 - 3) -2(b^2 - 3) $

Taking (b² - 3) common outside, we get:

$ = \{b^2 - 3\} \{b^4 - 2\} $

Hence the polynomial $ b^6 - 3b^4 - b^2 + 6 $ can be factored as $ (b^4 - 2)(b^2 - 3) $.

Hence, the answer.

7 0
4 years ago
A cylinder and a cone have the same diameter of 8 inches. The height of the cylinder is 5 inches. The height of the cone is 15 i
Wittaler [7]
Cylinder: v= \pi r^2h
3.14 x 4^2 + 5 = 55.24

cone: v=  \pi r \frac{h}{3}
3.14 x 4^2 + 15 = 251.2
5 0
3 years ago
(-0.5x - 0.4) - (0.75x - 0.6)
kozerog [31]

Answer:

-1.25x + 0.2

Step-by-step explanation:

(-0.5x - 0.4) - (0.75x - 0.6) = -0.5x - 0.4 - 0.75x + 0.6

                                          = -0.5x - 0.75x - 0.4 + 0.6

                                          = -1.25x + 0.2

5 0
3 years ago
Which list is it in order from least to greatest​
Natalka [10]

Answer:

pretty sure its C

Step-by-step explanation:

good luck!

6 0
3 years ago
Find the expansion of cos x about the point x=0
ycow [4]

Answer:

Cos x = 1 - \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^4}{4!} - \frac{x^6}{1!} + ...

Step-by-step explanation:

We use Taylor series expansion to answer this question.

We have to find the expansion of cos x at x = 0

f(x) = cos x, f'(x) = -sin x, f''(x) = -cos x, f'''(x) = sin x, f''''(x) = cos x

Now we evaluate them at x = 0.

f(0) = 1, f'(0) = 0, f''(0) = -1, f'''(0) = 0, f''''(0) = 1

Now, by Taylor series expansion we have

f(x) = f(a) + f'(a)(x-a) + \frac{f''(a)(x-a)^2}{2!} + \frac{f'''(a)(x-a)^3}{3!} + \frac{f''''(a)(x-a)^4}{4!} + ...

Putting a = 0 and all the values from above in the expansion, we get,

Cos x = 1 - \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^4}{4!} - \frac{x^6}{1!} + ...

8 0
3 years ago
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