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hjlf
3 years ago
12

What is1/4 times 3 What is 3/8 times 6

Mathematics
2 answers:
gogolik [260]3 years ago
8 0
.75 

2.25

In order to multiply fractions just multiple the numerator and denominator straight across
KIM [24]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

1/4 times 3 = 0.75

3/8 times 6 = 2.25

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I need HELP ASAP like NOW
LekaFEV [45]

Answer:

180

Step-by-step explanation:

450 x 0.4 = 180

4 0
3 years ago
X to the power of 2+ 2X plus 3X to the power of 2+ 4X subtract 2X to the power of 2+ X
eimsori [14]

Answer:

4x+12

Step-by-step explanation:

2x + 2 \times  { }^{2}  + 6x + 12 x ^{2}  - 4x +  - 2x ^{2}

8 0
3 years ago
In a particular game, a fair die is tossed. If the number of spots showing is either four or five, you win $1. If the number of
TiliK225 [7]

Answer:

The probability that you win at least $1 both times is 0.25 = 25%.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each game, there are only two possible outcomes. Either you win at least $1, or you do not. Games are independent. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

Probability of winning at least $1 on a single game:

The die has 6 sides.

If it lands on 4, 5 or 6(either of the three sides), you win at least $1. So

p = \frac{1}{2} = 0.5

You are going to play the game twice.

This means that n = 2

The probability that you win at least $1 both times is

This is P(X = 2).

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 2) = C_{2,2}.(0.5)^{2}.(0.5)^{2} = 0.25

The probability that you win at least $1 both times is 0.25 = 25%.

4 0
2 years ago
5 times 3 and 5 over 8 times 9 and 1 over 4
Ber [7]
The answer should be:
20.875

Hope this helps. 

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
HELP! WILL GIVE BRAINLEST!
bulgar [2K]

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

tan theta will equal zero if theta = n × pi where n is an integer

4 0
2 years ago
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