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Anna11 [10]
2 years ago
10

1+1 fast I don know the answer

Mathematics
2 answers:
Nonamiya [84]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

the answer to your very complicated question is two.

Step-by-step explanation:

1+1=2

as you can see here, it is two.

attashe74 [19]2 years ago
3 0
1+1=2 totally understandable I mean it’s a very very hard question
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A local bottler in Hawaii wishes to ensure that an average of 22 ounces of passion fruit juice is used to fill each bottle. In o
Mandarinka [93]

Answer:

(a) Null Hypothesis, H_0 : \mu = 22 ounces  

    Alternate Hypothesis, H_A : \mu\neq 22 ounces

(b) The value of the test statistic is -2.687.

(c) The critical values are -1.96 and 1.96.

(d) We conclude that Reject H_0 since the value of the test statistic is less than the negative critical value.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that a local bottler in Hawaii wishes to ensure that an average of 22 ounces of passion fruit juice is used to fill each bottle.

He takes a random sample of 65 bottles. The mean weight of the passion fruit juice in the sample is 21.54 ounces. Assume that the population standard deviation is 1.38 ounce.

<em>Let </em>\mu<em> = average ounces of passion fruit juice used to fill each bottle.</em>

(a) So, Null Hypothesis, H_0 : \mu = 22 ounces     {means that the average of 22 ounces of passion fruit juice is used to fill each bottle}

Alternate Hypothesis, H_A : \mu\neq 22 ounces     {means that the average different from 22 ounces of passion fruit juice is used to fill each bottle}

The test statistics that would be used here <u>One-sample z test statistics</u> as we know about the population standard deviation;

                        T.S. =  \frac{\bar X-\mu}{\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n} } }  ~ N(0,1)

where, \bar X = sample mean weight of the passion fruit juice = 21.54 ounces

            \sigma = population standard deviation = 1.38 ounce

            n = sample of bottles = 65

So, <u><em>test statistics</em></u>  =  \frac{21.54-22}{\frac{1.38}{\sqrt{65} } }  

                               =  -2.687

(b) The value of z test statistics is -2.687.

(c) Since, in the question we are not given with the level of significance so we assume it to be 5%. Now, at 5% significance level the z table gives critical values of -1.96 and 1.96 for two-tailed test.

<em>Since our test statistics does not lie within the range of critical values of z, so we have sufficient evidence to reject our null hypothesis as it will fall in the rejection region due to which </em><u><em>we reject our null hypothesis</em></u><em>.</em>

Therefore, we conclude that Reject H_0 since the value of the test statistic is less than the negative critical value which means that the average different from 22 ounces of passion fruit juice is used to fill each bottle.

6 0
3 years ago
Please help me its a math problem !! please see image
erma4kov [3.2K]

Answer:

<u>y ≤ 4</u>

Step-by-step explanation:

Solving :

  • Highest y-value is 4
  • The other y-values are less than 4
  • Hence, the range is : <u>y ≤ 4</u>
5 0
2 years ago
What are the steps on how to calculate the mean absolute deviation
RUDIKE [14]

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the mean absolute deviation of the data, start by finding the mean of the data set. Find the sum of the data values, and divide the sum by the number of data values. Find the absolute value of the difference between each data value and the mean: |data value – mean|.

6 0
3 years ago
17. New Schools expects an EBIT of $100,000 every year forever. The firm currently has no debt, and its cost of equity is 10 per
Natali5045456 [20]

Answer:

$880,000

Step-by-step explanation:

First note that the full meaning of EBIT is earning before interest and tax.

When the company does not have debt, it called unlevered (VU), while a company that has debt is called levered (VL) company. The VU and the VL of the company can be calculated using the VU and VL formula as follows:

Step 1. Calculation of VU

VU = [EBIT × (1 - tax rate)] ÷ cost of equity

       = [$100,000 × (1 - 0.20)] ÷ 0.10

       = [$100,000 × 0.80] ÷ 0.10

       = $80,000 ÷ 0.10

       = $800,000

Step 2. Calculation of VL

VL = VBC + (tax rate × conversion rate × VU)

        = $800,000 + (0.20 × 0.5 × $800,000)

        = $800,00 + $80,000

        = $880,000

Therefore, the value of the firm will be $880,000 if it is converted to 50 percent debt.

3 0
3 years ago
Answer please #1-4 !!!!!!
Darya [45]

Answer: I can't see the image

6 0
3 years ago
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